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    • the Town and Country [advertisments ] Regulations 2007 are not easy to understand. Most Council planing officials don't so it's good that you found one who knows. Although he may not have been right if the rogues have not been "controlling" in the car park for that long. The time only starts when the ANPR signs go up, not how long the area has been used as a car park.   Sadly I have checked Highview out and they have been there since at least 2014 . I have looked at the BPA Code of Practice version 8 which covers 2023 and that states Re Consideration and Grace Periods 13.3 Where a parking location is one where a limited period of parking is permitted, or where drivers contract to park for a defined period and pay for that service in advance (Pay & Display), this would be considered as a parking event and a Grace Period of at least 10 minutes must be added to the end of a parking event before you issue a PCN. It then goes on to explain a bit more further down 13.5 You must tell us the specific consideration/grace period at a site if our compliance team or our agents ask what it is. 13.6 Neither a consideration period or a grace period are periods of free parking and there is no requirement for you to offer an additional allowance on top of a consideration or grace period. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________So you have  now only overstayed 5 minutes maximum since BPA quote a minimum of 10 minutes. And it may be that the Riverside does have a longer period perhaps because of the size of the car park? So it becomes even more incumbent on you to remember where the extra 5 minutes could be.  Were you travelling as a family with children or a disabled person where getting them in and out of the car would take longer. Was there difficulty finding a space, or having to queue to get out of the car park . Or anything else that could account for another 5 minutes  without having to claim the difference between the ANPR times and the actual times.
    • Regarding a driver, that HAS paid for parking but input an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number.   This is an easy mistake to make, especially if a driver has access to more than one vehicle. First of all, upon receiving an NTK/PCN it is important to check that the Notice fully complies with PoFA 2012 Schedule 4 before deciding how to respond of course. The general advice is NOT to appeal to the Private Parking Company as, for example, you may identify yourself as driver and in certain circumstances that could harm your defence at a later stage. However, after following a recent thread on this subject, I have come to the conclusion that, in the case of inputting an incorrect Vehicle Registration Number, which is covered by “de minimis” it may actually HARM your defence at a later stage if you have not appealed to the PPC at the first appeal stage and explained that you DID pay for parking and CAN provide proof of parking, it was just that an incorrect VRN was input in error. Now, we all know that the BPA Code of Practice are guidelines from one bunch of charlatans for another bunch of charlatans to follow, but my thoughts are that there could be problems in court if a judge decides that a motorist has not followed these guidelines and has not made an appeal at the first appeal stage, therefore attempting to resolve the situation before it reaches court. From BPA Code of Practice: Section 17:  Keying Errors B) Major Keying Errors Examples of a major keying error could include: • Motorist entered their spouse’s car registration • Motorist entered something completely unrelated to their registration • Motorist made multiple keying errors (beyond one character being entered incorrectly) • Motorist has only entered a small part of their VRM, for example the first three digits In these instances we would expect that such errors are dealt with appropriately at the first appeal stage, especially if it can be proven that the motorist has paid for the parking event or that the motorist attempted to enter their VRM or were a legitimate user of the car park (eg a hospital patient or a patron of a restaurant). It is appreciated that in issuing a PCN in these instances, the operator will have incurred charges including but not limited to the DVLA fee and other processing costs therefore we believe that it is reasonable to seek to recover some of these costs by making a modest charge to the motorist of no more than £20 for a 14-day period from when the keying error was identified before reverting to the charge amount at the point of appeal. Now, we know that the "modest charge" is unenforceable in law, however, it would be up to the individual if they wanted to pay and make the problem go away or in fact if they wanted to contest the issue in court. If the motorist DOES appeal to the PPC explaining the error and the PPC rejects the appeal and the appeal fails, the motorist can use that in his favour at court.   Defence: "I entered the wrong VRN by mistake Judge, I explained this and I also submitted proof of payment for the relevant parking period in my appeal but the PPC wouldn't accept that"   If the motorist DOES NOT appeal to the PPC in the first instance the judge may well use that as a reason to dismiss the case in the claimant's favour because they may decide that they had the opportunity to resolve the matter at a much earlier stage in the proceedings. It is my humble opinion that a motorist, having paid and having proof of payment but entering the wrong VRN, should make an appeal at the first appeal stage in order to prevent problems at a later stage. In this instance, I think there is nothing to be gained by concealing the identity of the driver, especially if at a later stage, perhaps in court, it is said: “I (the driver) entered the wrong VRN.” Whether you agree or not, it is up to the individual to decide …. but worth thinking about. Any feedback, especially if you can prove to the contrary, gratefully received.
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    • deed?  you mean consent order you and her signed? concluding the case as long as you nor she break it's conditions signed upto? dx  
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Legal Action: how to start off. IMPORTANT IF YOURE BEING SUED


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Anyone advise if an assignee has to issue a new DN (the OC did issue a DN before the sale to the assignee) before a claim can be issued?

as long as a valid notice has been issued then no it doesnt

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as long as a valid notice has been issued then no it doesnt

 

Thanks PT. That's what I feared.

 

Once the OC has issued the DN what charges or costs can an assigned DCA add to the sum claimed - if any?

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Hi Basa, you have checked the validity of the DN haven't you?

 

Not mine, but from it's description it sounds good. Unfortunately time has moved on and the recipient has admitted liability electronically (case through Northampton) and got a CCJ. They are now going for a re-determination of the monthly payments the DCA requested and was querying the added amounts of the claim.

 

The DN gave a balance of £3739 with £77 arrears, the DCA originally claimed £3684 in April which has now risen to £4250!

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Not mine, but from it's description it sounds good. Unfortunately time has moved on and the recipient has admitted liability electronically (case through Northampton) and got a CCJ. They are now going for a re-determination of the monthly payments the DCA requested and was querying the added amounts of the claim.

 

The DN gave a balance of £3739 with £77 arrears, the DCA originally claimed £3684 in April which has now risen to £4250!

 

Post-judgment interest? Seems as if the debtor cannot free themselves of this debt. Did the court allow the DCA to effectively do what they want?

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Post-judgment interest? Seems as if the debtor cannot free themselves of this debt. Did the court allow the DCA to effectively do what they want?

 

Not sure of the full details but it appears the debtor made a written admission to the claim and the CCJ came back with an order for over £200 / month at the claimants request!

 

I suggested the matter of the amount of the debt is queried at the re-determination hearing.

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I have my own odd situation.

 

Longish story and I don't want to give too much away to possible prying eyes - but:

 

I had a default judgement against a credit card company, but it was subsequently set-aside.

 

The judge ordered the defendant (the CCC) to file and serve a full defence within 21 days. The 21 days passed a few weeks ago.

 

I received service of the defence by the due date but the court has not!

 

What now - request default judgement, again. Could they claim a mistake and obtain another set-aside or should I point out to the court this is the second time they have ignored court procedures?

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OK I seem to have killed this thread stone dead :eek:

 

May I please ask what anyone might think is the best way to proceed?

 

I can request default judgement which is purely an admin task by the court case management team. Or I could make an application for default judgement, which I understand has to go before a judge and might therefore carry more weight in any subsequent application for a set aside (but will cost a court fee).

 

I suppose I need to do something?

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Q: How would they deal with you in this situation?

A: They would shaft you!

 

Unless they sent the WS to you recorded, go for strike out. Reconfirm with the court whether they have received anything, then hit hard.

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The judge ordered the defendant (the CCC) to file and serve a full defence within 21 days. The 21 days passed a few weeks ago.

 

I received service of the defence by the due date but the court has not!

 

Hmm - methinks this may have been a deliberate ploy to gain extra time. However it's up to them to ensure that their defence is received by the court on time.

 

I would apply for judgment by default. It costs you nothing & will cost them if they then choose to apply for a set aside. SJ means an app by you at a fee & gives them the opportunity to defend at no cost. IMO get it in the bag, address the arguments later if they choose a fight.

Any knowledge I possess or advice I proffer is based solely on my experiences in the University of Life. Please make your own assessment of legality, risks & costs before taking any action.

 

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If the defence that you have received is 'totally without merit' then I would apply for Summary Judgement against them - they will be given the opportunity to defend and it would be *very* difficult for them to overturn it (i.e. would be an appeal).

 

If there is some merit in it and it wasn't sent recorded then just go for default judgement again. - can't think they would set it aside *again*

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Q: How would they deal with you in this situation?

A: They would shaft you!

 

Unless they sent the WS to you recorded, go for strike out. Reconfirm with the court whether they have received anything, then hit hard.

Agree with that DB and foolishgirl.

 

They must submit to the court,so go in hard if they have ignored the court again.

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Hmm - methinks this may have been a deliberate ploy to gain extra time. However it's up to them to ensure that their defence is received by the court on time.

 

I would apply for judgment by default. It costs you nothing & will cost them if they then choose to apply for a set aside. SJ means an app by you at a fee & gives them the opportunity to defend at no cost. IMO get it in the bag, address the arguments later if they choose a fight.

 

i'm not sure that failing to provide to the court in time will get you very far

 

the most important thing is that YOU received it in time

 

courts generally accept that creditors deal with hundreds if not thousands of cases at any one time and offer them a lot more lattitude that they do you!

 

i suspect, in any event that many judges do not get around to reading the documents until the day before the hearing

 

IMO you would be wasting everyones times seeking to obtain judgement by default t because you or the court were served a few days late

 

the court may well argue that it is not for you to decide if the court has been inconvenienced

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he buys the debt "lock stock and smoking barrel" " warts and all"

 

but do they .........

 

I have yet to see a DCA confirming that they own the agreement - and therefore when you request a copy of the current agreement it is between you and the DCA rather than you & the OC. If they have bought it 'lock, stock 'n' barrel' then the agreement is now between you & them......

 

I am getting more and more convinced that they are buying what they call the 'debt' or the 'Rights' or the 'future receivables' rather than the agreement itself.

 

Which then leads to the point that the assignment is not absolute and they cannot take action solely in their own name etc.

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i think you may be getting confused

 

If the dca is "acting" for the Oc then the OC is still responsible but the DCA is obliged, as he is acting for the OC to respond to your requests on behalf of his client and no simply fob you off or ignore you

 

If the debt has been assigned- then the person to whom it is assigned is the new creditor

 

if you have NOT BEEN INFORMED that the debt has been assigned- then whoever is contacting you (DCA or solicitor) has no legal rights and cannot themselves demand payment- only on behalf of whoever they are acting

 

what happens in reality is that many dca's do not in fact buy the debt- but simply offer to take it on "sale or return" - without actually completing any of the formalities of assignment

 

if they get a result all well and good- otherwise they simply return it to the OC and he passes it further round the DCA merrygoround

 

In short unless you have been notified of the assignment- it aint assigned as far as you are concerned

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Ok, I have 4 assigned accounts currently. Aktiv, Lowells & Cabot x 2.

Yet none of these will supply a copy of the *current* agreement i.e. the one between me & them. They insist on sending the ones between me & the OC.

 

Donkey posted an interesting article by Cabot on another thread which pretty much confirmed they DO NOT buy the agreement as a whole but the rights only.

 

Cabot are currently going down the 'it aint dead' route claiming arrears only ... but will deny they are the creditor ........

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they need only send the agreement between you and the OC together with proof that the debt has legally been assigned to them

 

the assignment (if valid) merely substitutes them for the OC

 

clearly you cannot expect them to produce that which does not exist ( a signed agreement between you and the assignee)

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I asked for a copy of the current executed agreement.

 

The agreement that was sent is still between me and the original creditor - (as it happens the OC did send a copy of the current & the signed original) ....

 

I am waiting for them to confirm in writing that that is the case.

 

It was a very clear question, basically can you please confirm whether #### or yourselves are the current creditor in this agreement.

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an interesting find by Donkey on this subject

http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/legal-issues/166413-ccman-goldfish-6.html#post2972795

 

We do not believe that debt purchasers fall within the definition of “creditor” in section 189(1) of the Consumer Credit Act, because they take assignments of the rights, but not the duties, of creditors under consumer credit agreements:

Edited by gh2008
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Wasn't me who found it - I just nicked it! Apologies to whoever found and posted it first - remiss of me not to credit you, and I'm afraid I can't locate the thread. You can bet it had "Cabot" in the title though...

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I asked for a copy of the current executed agreement.

 

The agreement that was sent is still between me and the original creditor - (as it happens the OC did send a copy of the current & the signed original) ....

 

I am waiting for them to confirm in writing that that is the case.

 

It was a very clear question, basically can you please confirm whether #### or yourselves are the current creditor in this agreement.

 

i have to say it as i see it- i think you are being pedantic and this will not help your case!!

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