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Mortgage Unenforceability


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Just a quick auery to anyone that might be in the know.

 

When it comes to mortgage agreements do the same principles apply as to other debts (credit cards, loans etc) under the Consumer Credit Act 1974?

Therefore can they be rendered unenforceable if the lender cannot provide a true copy of the credit agreement?

 

I understand the basics for credit cards/unsecured loans but am curious with regards to mortgages. Thanks in advance

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Ok, thanks. I've been reading the posts related to this but a lot of it seems very complicated. I just wondered if there was a relatively straight forward procedure to follow (as in the case of credit cards/unsecured loans) as I'm sure my current lender GE Money have me over a barrel and make the rules up as they go along.

 

I'll carry on with researching on here and see what emerges. Thanks again all the same.

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