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    • dca please.?   Barclays would have marked the A/c Defaulted on or before sale, and issued a default notice a dca debt buyer cannot issue a default notice    send Barclays an sar.   the A/c was opened whilst resident in Scotland that means the debt is statute barred and extinguished,, dead gone parrot. though that has no relevance to a credit file.    
    • scan it all up to one multipage PDF read upload carefully   I suspect its the usual stuff they troll out for vanquis card debt those  application forms are not a credit agreement    lots of previous Lowell claimform threads here to read that explains why.   dx  
    • In late 2014, I received correspondence from a DCA acting on behalf of Barclays, pursuing a student overdraft of around £1k from 2003. I hadn't used this account in many years, well over six, and it is my belief (though, in full honesty,   I can't actually remember, and can't prove anything) that it was closed a couple of years later in around 2004/2005/2006 (and it wasn't on my credit file in 2014), and the overdraft transferred to RBS (an account also closed so long ago that it is long since gone from my credit file. I certainly don't recall using it after 2004, and it was quite common then to transfer student accounts/overdrafts between banks.   I emailed the DCA, stating that I didn't acknowledge the debt, that it would be statute-barred in any case, and requested an original credit agreement. None was forthcoming,   after some back and forth, I invited them to issue proceedings if they felt they had an enforceable credit agreement. They did not respond.   I am currently looking at applying for a mortgage, and have noticed that whilst this account doesn't appear on Equifax or Experian, it is on my TransUnion file, showing as set up in 2003 and defaulted in 2015.   Does anyone have any advice as to what I should do? The 2019 Doyle case might make my contention that it was statute-barred somewhat shakier, though, equally, I haven't heard anything about it in over five years,   I cannot believe that, if the account was not closed/settled in the mid-2000s as I believe, that Barclays would not have issued a default notice before 2015. Does anyone have any advice as to what I should do?   I want this off my credit file, even if the account wasn't closed in 2004, I believe that Barclays/its DCA are trying to pull a fast one by recording a default in January 2015, but given that neither party has any records with which to validate their belief/position, it hardly seems fair that I pay out for something that either doesn't exist or ought to be statute barred? A further point is that whilst it is Barclays, the account was opened at a branch in Scotland (where I lived/studied), where I believe that the Limitation period is five years, so, even if it transpired that the default was legitimately in 2015, would the matter now be statute barred anyway? Or would it be six years given that I now live in England?
    • Hi.   Quick update. I have contacted the FOS and asked for written confirmation of the decision made so that I can take court action.   I have had my Cifas report today. It states.   Barclays Bank registered a 1st party fraud report against me on the 30th May 2019. This is the date they closed my account.   Case Type: Misuse of facility. Reasons: Multiple encashment fraud. Cifas Filing: First party fraud - (Opening an account or other facility for a fraudulent purpose or the fraudulent misuse of an account or facility; or taking out and insurance policy for a fraudulent purpose or the fraudulent misuse of an insurance policy and/or insurance policy documentation)   So, they told the FOS early December that my credit file would be amended and any negative reports would be removed, but as of today the account is still in default with Equifax and I still have the Cifas registered against my name.
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I had a council tax bill and it went to court and the bailiffs was set onto us to collect the outstanding amount....

we paid the council the full amout but didnt pay the bailiff fees.....

the council gave me a zero balance for the account......

am i right in thinking that the council should have paid the bailiff his fees 1st???? and if the warrant value has been paid to the council, does this mean i dont have to pay the fee's as the council buggered it up by not taking the fees 1st.

how long does a warrant for council tax last for????

what should we do?

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This is how it should work, the bailiff collects the money from you, once all the debt has been collected the bailiff takes out his fees first and gives the remainder to the council. If you have paid the council and the debt is clear with them then all the bailiff can do now is take you to a small claims court for his fee, thats if there is a fee to answer to. If he has made no visits then you owe him nothing. If he made 1 visit then his fee is £24.50, if he made a second visit then an extra charge is £18.00, this is where no levy is made of course .. hope that helps

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You need to check again with the council whether they have remitted the bailiffs fees to them - this does happen

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