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    • Hi all   It's been a long time since I've used this site, I used to be a frequent poster, mainly in the parking subforums.    I'll try and keep this as concise as possible, although it may get a bit confusing, so apologies in advance.  Also I hope this is the right subforum for such a matter, but I couldn't see anything more specific for divorces/family law.  So here goes..   My now ex-wife and I divorced last year, after our relationship broke down due to irreconcilable differences.  She initiated the divorce proceedings so was the petitioner, I was the respondent.  We informally agreed early on that she would stay at the family home (I moved out), and buy me out of my share of the house and contents.   We went to family mediation and hashed out an agreed settlement figure that we were mostly happy with.  A lump sum for the house and contents, plus she would give me the money to pay off several loans for goods on hire purchase that remained in the house, as the debts were solely in my name at the time.    I did not contest the divorce on any point, except she wanted me to pay the court costs of the divorce (£850) since she blamed me for the breakdown of the marriage.  I objected to this on the financial paperwork, stating that I was not the petitioner, plus the cause of the breakdown of the marriage were not due to adultery or domestic abuse.    The financial court ruled against me, meaning the £850 would be deducted from the final settlement figure.  I was looking to appeal against this decision which would have delayed the proceedings by several months, however in the meantime I was able to make an agreement with her solicitors to split the court costs 50:50, so we would in fact be paying £425 each.  They sent this offer in a letter headed "Without Prejudice", stating that if I was agreeable, they would submit an amended financial order to the courts with the amounts amended so I would only be paying £425 instead of £850 towards the costs.  I responded to this in writing and signed the form they sent me, initialling where the amount was changed on the financial order.   This is where it gets a bit tricky.  They then resubmitted the ORIGINAL financial order to the family with the £850 deduction still on it and promptly stopped responding to my calls and emails.  My ex wife has now paid the settlement figure, with the £850 deducted rather than the agreed upon £425.  It's a bit of an odd situation as my ex paid me basically exactly what it says on the court form, even though I made a different agreement with her solicitors.  I feel they've been dishonest in this case, whether intentionally or not but it's still left me over £400 out of pocket.    My question basically is this?  Do I have any legal recourse options available to me against the solicitor?  Does the fact that they headed the offer letter "Without Prejudice" mean that they can basically go back against their word and not honour an agreement that was made in good faith?  I've been doing my own research into this subject and it's a bit of a minefield, but I'm wondering whether I've got grounds for a complaint to the Solicitors Regulatory Authority, or possibly even pursuing them via the Small Claims Court?   Any thoughts?  If you need any more information or need me to clarify any particular points, please let me know.   Thanks in advance CD
    • That IS the question HB.   My literal quote isn't surrounded by additional perspective I commonly add and was shown as is.       "64% of the UK’s trade with all the countries with which the UK is seeking continuity,"   * It seems a given that Johnson is not seeking continuity with the EU HB   * Undoubtedly the reality is they just mean 64% of continuity with the handful of African nations that the reference was in despite it implying something else   In which case, a more accurate statement than that presented by Johnson the Liars representatives would be:   We've managed 64% continuity with a small group containing a small handful of African nations which are a small part of Africa as a whole and an utterly tiny part of world trade   and presumably, as they have singled that out for special mention to give their chosen implied perspective ... - that 64% continuity (a little over half we have as part of the European Union) the best 'continuity' deal they've managed so far with any county or block.   It certainly isn't 64% continuity of even JUST the external to the EU beneficial trade we have as part of the European Union let alone replicate the benefits with the rest of the EU   and Don't forget thats just continuity - carrying on what we currently have - and not any new or additional/improved deals  
    • Can I just ask only because I do panic about stuff like this.  More because of the affect it has on my husband.   In 2014 when my husband was at his worst and NatWest got the charging order on our house (which was then repossessed) we had to stop using our NatWest bank account which we did.  When we signed up for credit reports in January we noticed our NatWest bank account was being reported on a monthly basis so we decided to close it.  My husband and I went into a branch and closed it.  We had 4 accounts, 1 for everyday banking and 2 savings and 1 was the loan.  She said she could close the 3 accounts but obviously not the loan.  She said she’d transfer the money from the 2 savings into the main bank account and give us the money then shut all 3.  We were gobsmacked when she gave us over £1000.  We never thought we had money in the accounts.  Can this be used against us?  The 3 accounts are now shut and marked as settled on our credit file.
    • Thank you for your advice.   As the owner of 2 labradors dog turd is something I have plenty of.
    • Apologies if I've missed something obvious (I know nothing about Facebook) but where do the references to the "club" and the SAR come from?
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mata

MBNA F&F Settlement

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Hi All,

 

Need some help in decision making...

 

I have about 13k debt with two off MBNA cards. One of these cards (£9000) was sold by BOS to MBNA. SO I never signed any documents. This transaction between BOS and MBNA took place in Jan 2006.

 

Now MBNA have offerred me 50% discount on both cards, again if I make one payment by end of this month. I am thinking of demanding more discount.

 

Just about 3 days ago I came to know that if the lender can't provide any signed contract, the debt cannot be enforceable. I can threaten that I am not willing to pay but worried the discount offer might cease.

 

I have two questions;

 

1. Shall I take the discount offer and ask for more discount or

2. Challenge them to provide the signed contract on one of the card?

 

Hope you guys be able to provide some assistance.

 

Thank you.

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Sorry to jump in here but, can I ask how you got to a point where they're even making the offer?

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I stopped making the payment since Feb 09. They called and I mentioned that I am having financial difficulties and I am not in a position to make the payment. Since then they tried all sorts of threats but I just never bothered. Now they are offering this 50% discount but maybe not going to accept. Will bargain.....

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I'm also intrigued by this 50% offer. Although it's not unheard of (with other companies, at least), it generally seems to take much longer than 5 months to get to that point. Did you get it in writing, or was it a liar over the phone trying to extract a payment from you?

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Hi,

 

I had a phonecall from MBNA this morning; supposedly "very caring" accounts manager and wanted a month payment to stop being sold to DCA. I asked about F&F but she said it'll be Partial. And they are willing to accept around £4.5k.

 

Reading various comments on here, it seems they will "sell" to DCA for the remainder after 180 days. So not going to accept as unless I get F&F in writting.

 

Some good info from ExMBNAstaff & Joe on this forum..

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