Hello. Apologies if this is in the wrong place so feel free to move it. We gained the Right to Buy 16 years ago via a Deed of Assignment with my mother. She was informed that she would lose the Right to Buy and that we would gain it. We have the Deed of Assignment, the tenancy 'General Terms and Conditions' that confrim the above and in 2004 we began the process of buying our house. We received a from from the landlord confirming that we had the Right to Buy and they even evaulated the property. Although at the time we discovered that we could not get a mortgage so everything stopped. In 2007 we moved house. Same Housing Association. Another Deed of Assignment, this time with my father-in-law. He had the Right to Buy and so did we. We were inform that we would still retain the Right to Buy when we moved. Four weeks ago we began the process of purchasing our house again. The landlord is now stating that we do not have the Right to Buy as we were not tenants in 1998. They also quoted s171B of the Housing (Preservation of the Right to Buy) Regulation 1993. So, we sent in a complaint with all of the documents that we have confirming that we have the Right to Buy and reffered to this from said regulations: ‘Extent of preserved right: qualifying persons and dwelling-houses: 171B. (4) The following are qualifying successors for this purpose - (aa) where the former secure tenancy was not a joint tenancy, a member of the former secure tenant’s family to whom the former secure tenant assigned his assured tenancy of a dwelling-house in relation to which, immediately before the assignment, he had the preserved right to buy. ’ Following a phone conversation this morning I have been informed that even though they have this new information they still belive that we have no Right to Buy. They are stating that it was all a mistake and that the Housing Regulations can be interpreted in different ways. Any advice will help a lot? Regards, The Lion.