Hi I am after a bit of advice on whether it is possible to ask for a default to be added to a settled account. I initially took out a txtloan ( now Myjar) Payday loan for £100 on 23/02/2012, this was repaid on 08/03/2012. I then took out another £100 loan on the same day which then went into arrears due to financial difficulty, I had multiple payday loans which were taking up the majority of my wage on payday. I entered a dmp later that year with the lenders receiving their first payment in December 2012. All of the loans are now either settled or satisfied. I am looking to move house next year so have been checking my credit report. I have noticed that the other payday lenders marked my account as default between March 2012 - September 2012. This would mean that they are due to drop off my credit report later this year. The exception is Myjar who never defaulted me, the only thing that shows up on my credit report is arrangement to pay and the account was settled in November 2015. I was wondering if I would have a case to ask myjar to add a default when I was initially 3-6 months in arrears as per ico guidelines. I was 9 months in arrears by the time they received their first payment through my dmp. As it stands the settled account will not drop off my credit file until November 2021. Thank you in advance for your help.

Hi, I bought an item from a company in the USA. It arrived safely by Fedex. A while later, I received an invoice from Fedex asking for payment of VAT and a handling charge, £26.29 in total. The following is the relevant paragraph from my second and last email to them. I have now received a demand for payment from Control Account PLC. "If Fedex had made it known to me before I agreed to purchase I would have been able to make a choice. As it is Fedex is trying to make a retrospective charge against me. According to my understanding English law does not allow retrospective charges to be imposed." Is my understanding correct or do Fedex have a legitimate claim against me? Thanks in advance.

Hi and thanks again for the forum. I purchased a used car from Profiled Cars in Pitsea, Essex on the 21 of September 2015. I drove the car home and went to lock the car with the remote and it would not lock or unlock from the remote. locked the car manually and sent a text to the dealer. He advised at this point that he was not aware the key didn't work and he advised me to change the batteries and to reset the key as per the handbook. T he key wouldn't reset. I texted the dealer back and he advised me to bring the car in at the weekend but to check first when he would be there. Saturday came and he advised me that he wouldn't look at the car. He said that a £200 discount we had agreed before the sale covered and "niggly" faults. He said he would only pay £20.00 towards a repair. I said I'd been quoted at least £80.00. I suggested that I'll get the key fixed and bill him. He advised me that I should not threaten him. It then became apparent that the car had other faults which includes a lazy window motor and knocking from the suspension over bumpy roads (not apparent on the test drive). I've now realised the blower only sends hot air even in the cold position. I emailed the dealer saying I want a full refund because he refused to fix the key. At this point he said that I had verbally agreed to any small faults as a result of the discount. However, this is not true because he agreed the discount before I had even viewed the car. He's now also saying the new 30 day rule is NOT retrospective. The car has a warranty, I've booked into a local garage for the faults to be assessed. The garage will then speak with the warranty company and they will decide if the faults are valid and if they will pay. However, the key is not covered. I want to return the car but naturally the dealer is refusing. What next please ? Many thanks in advance.

I'm currently repaying (on a payment plan) an old council tax bill on a property which I vacated in 2013. For the period the bill covers, I was living alone, but never claimed a single person discount at the time. Have made initial contact with Council, who say they can only retrospectively apply a single person discount from 1st April 2014. I understand that each council will set its own policy on how far they will backdate single person discount, and that there is no legislation as such which governs this? So my question, has anyone successfully badgered their council into applying Single Person Discount on older bills? (Mine goes back to 2011/2012). If so, any tips on how I may best approach them? Thanks.

Hi there, I had a Barclaycard I thought had been defaulted with the CRAs back in 2009 due to a Notice of Default I had received. Barclaycard actually added late payment markers '6' for over two years before closing the account and selling on to Cabot. I have spoken with Barclaycard and I think they are going to agree to a retrospective default. However, I am arguing this should have been in May/June 09 when they first send Default notices and applying default sums to the account. They are saying Oct 09 is when their records showed the account was regarded as a defaulted account. Obviously if they do this and it is May they agree to then the account would be 6 years from default and should be removed entirely from my file, correct? But what would then happen to the Cabot entry? It is the same debt but they are reporting an arrangement to pay (albeit they haven't shown the diminishing balance of those payments since 2011). I have already written to both Barclaycard and Cabot and the CRAs complaining. But I want to know how I go about and if the Cabot entry must come off once the Barclaycard default 'falls off'? Thanks

Hi all I have recently finished a DMP and I am finally starting toget my finances back on track and I am hoping for some advice on improving my credit rating. My situation is as follows: The defaults registered on my account are due to fall off in August of next yea rand I am starting to put together a deposit for a mortgage. With this in mind I am trying to do whatever I can to improve my credit rating. I have recently been successful (with the help of the FOS) in getting a default retrospectively added to an account that was previously marked with AR markers for the entire period of the DMP and this will now disappear along with the other defaults. After the defaulted accounts disappear, I only have one concern relating to a Lloyds Bank Credit Card. The account was never defaulted, as the payments under the DMP were close to the contractual payments Overtime the payments made through the DMP started to cover the minimum payments and Lloyds started recording the account as being up to date (although charges and interest were frozen after some time). The records on my Credit file read as follows: Realistically, it will be January 2017 before I would be looking to apply for a mortgage and by then the only negative records remaining would be the nine late payment markers in 2011. The current available balance shown for the card is £7850 (although this is not actually available, as the facility has been withdrawn), the outstanding balance is £1432 and I am paying £35 per month (which is in excess of the minimum payment) in order to keep building the positive payment history. My questions are: 1. Will the 9 late payments be enough to scupper a mortgage application, considering their age? 2. Would it be better to request a retrospective default and lose the payment history? 3. Should I reduce the credit limit? 4. Is there anything else I can do to improve my position? Once the other defaults disappear, the only other records remaining on my file will be as follows: - Phone bill split in to two sections - a loan for the purchase of the handset and then the monthly tariff payment – Both are fully up to date and show no negative marks. The monthly tariff payments go back 6 years and the loan for the phone 12months since I last upgraded my phone. - Bank overdraft of £900 – fully up to date and recorded as a zero balance every month with no negative marks going back 6years. Any advice would be most gratefully received!

Last June I paid for a year's storage in advance with a well know self-storage company. At the time I took the opportunity to negotiate down the charges they initally quoted for renewal (I've been using them for several years now). The negotiation was all done over the phone and no mention was made of VAT at the time. I am now being asked by them to pay VAT on the charges relating to October onwards. They claim that they had not known the storage charges were liable for VAT until recently when their lawyers confirmed that it was. I've looked on the government web site and see that it was made quite clear when the announcement of future VAT liability was announced in the budget, it was also announced that "anti-forestalling measures" would apply from 21 March, therefore the Self Storage company should have known that there would be a VAT liability. As a concession, the company is only asking for half of the VAT, but this is still a significant sum. So my question is: Am I liable for the VAT or should the company have known about it and included it in the agreed sum that I paid in June? Thanks for any help.

Hi Guys, I am new to the forum but I have read a huge amount of information of which I am very grateful for. I used to work offshore in the Isle of Man and initially when I moved over with work, I used my UK number. After see my direct debit sky rocket, I changed to a local provider. The bill is around the £1000 mark, of which I wasn't able to pay. Majority of the bill was data roaming charges and after investigating on their (Orange) website, I found out that there are data bundles which can be applied to your account prior to leaving. However, I wasn't aware of this and asked Orange if they could retrospectively apply the necessary bundle to my account. So far, I have not received a single response as to why they are not willing to apply the travel bundle to my bill. I have been emailing the executive office and they just reply back as if i didn't ask the question. Anyway, my bill is with Moorncroft now and I understand that they have no authority and Orange have confirmed that the debt is still with them. So I am going to send £40 p/m into Orange's bank account with my account number as a reference. In the meantime, I am going to send a SAR to Orange and request everything, including a transcript of my calls to Orange. I do remember one agent stating that the Isle of Man was in the UK so I wouldn't be charged. Can anyone who has successfully had data bundles applied to their Orange account retrospectively please post below and say how much the bill was reduced by, please?? I understand that some people on this forum have had their bills reduced because a travel bundle has been applied retrospective. I don't know why they are treating me differently and once I receive everything back from the SAR, I am going to send everything to Watchdog! Thanks Vincent