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Hi - been trying to work this out in my head but wonder if anyone has any ideas about this situation of mine, thanks. I have an interest only mortgage - the arrears I previously had were shown on the statements and increased the outstanding balance, which I understand. The new balance then attracted more interest. Later the lender took me to court and had the arrears added to the security, increasing the balance again. Shortly after that they capitalised the arrears - so - assume the balance went up again. Also added all their legal fees. Does this