My home was repossessed by Acenden for SPML last April, and the sale completed on 28 November 2016. I have still not received the residual proceeds, amounting to >£133,000. Am I entitled to interest on this since the date of completion? I'm severely disabled, in temporary accommodation and my health, already known by Acenden to be very poor, is suffering. I need to buy a new home, I'm of an age where I'm eligible for an equity release mortgage, and there are much cheaper places to live than here. I desperately need to get out of here. Having read CAG Guide, can I sue Acenden for breach of the FCA Code of Conduct? It's a heavyweight document and would take me a long time to search for any pointers. Please, could someone at least point me to the section of it I need to read to find out? TIA.

Hi all, I bought a property with an ex partner many years ago. I managed the property for the first few years before handing it over to a managing agent. The property was in my name as he was out of the country as the time of signing the mortgage. No declaration of trust was put in place but it was always agreed to split it 50/50 and there is an email showing this (and that intent). The property was sold 2.5 years ago and following a previous legal matter, where the ex wanted access to the property's accounts, my solicitor at the time, who sold the property, agreed to hold the proceeds of the sale on account until we agreed the split. Where I'm at is that I am still agreeing to 50/50 whereas my ex partner wants more (he thinks I benefitted from re-mortgaging the property which I didn't and various other things which are not correct). My solicitor who dealt with the sale has now handed this matter to a Civil Litigation / Family lawyer in his firm who now wants £500 on account to get going and then £250 an hour + VAT. I simply can't afford this. I see this matter with my ex dragging on and on (as have previous matters to cause extra pain and maximum cost) and I do not wish to rack up huge costs which will only benefit the solicitors in the end. Their quote of what it could cost up to would eat up the entire 50% share I am owed. My questions are : - can I handle this matter on my own for now? - If I need a solicitor in the future can a junior, less costly person handle this? Anyone know how much or where to go? - If I went to another solicitor what happens to the money held on account? - What law prevents me from taking my half as it was in my name anyway? - Can I be taken to court if we can't reach agreement? - Is there any other information that could be useful for me? Thanks so much - I really appreciate any feedback or input you have

So, long story short, we caught the Water bottle provider (for office water) filling his pockets with mints from the meeting room. He was only supposed to, and trusted with, being in there to change the water bottles over. we dont want this little thief in the building any longer we called to terminate the water contract - they have stated a) they dont give two hoots about their staff and b) they wont cancel the water order, will, come to premises and take the goods and continue to bill us c) "bring it on, we have lawyers" No apology, nothing. here is the agreement enclosed that we signed, yes we can give three months notice as its dated 2014. what rights do I have - without court, bearing in mind its a civil agreement not a criminal one - yet my issue is technically criminal (ok its only mints but the principle is there). we threatend the fact we may call the police about this and for them to just take their stuff and go - but he proceeded to take that as blackmail! We just dont want them in the building ever again nor do we want to pay them a penny more! They are also member sof: http://safecontractor.com/ and http://bwca.org.uk/

Help needed please, I will try to explain the best I can, here goes...... My partner split with her then husband some years ago due to him having several affairs, she then sold the family home and he proceeds of the sale she put down as a deposit towards her new home for her and their 2 small children. She gave him about £6000 from this. They later divorced some years later but there was no order put in place for any stake of the money from the sale of the house. I made about 50,000 from the sale of the family home, I put down 34,000 on my new house as I couldn't get a mortgage for anymore. The rest paid fees and paid off debt and was used to do get the house right. I am just wondering if this was fair or should he received more money? Where do I stand from a legal point of view. Can a court go back and make me pay a share of the proceeds. All this happened 6 years ago last month.