Can anyone advise
if a debt has been sold,
do the original creditor has to provide a true signed copy of the credit agreement
or is it the company that has bought the debt has to provide the agreement??
I just recently had a letter back from Lowell stating that they do not have to provide the agreement
as the default notice was received from the original creditor.
According to Lowell it was not them that recorded the default it was the original creditor.
Therefore, do I need to contact the original creditor to provide me with a true signed copy of the credit agreement.
Also, I have noticed that the account was first opened in 2004 which would definitely make me underage.
Please can anyone advise.