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Showing results for tags 'indirect'.
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If a pub bars a person for making calls to the police and threatening suicide - would it be indirect discrimination to ban them (disability/mental health is a protective characteristic) Or could pub argue the fella was drunk and they were banning him for that. Would a ban for such an incident be disproprtionate?
Hi, I am currently on ESA Support Group and also have an award for DLA which doesn't technically need to be renewed until over five years from now. I have the right to buy and could buy my current home for about 35k. I have some savings and may also be able to borrow some money from relatives to add to my deposit. I cannot find a single lender that's willing to lend me any money toward this on a secured basis whatsoever. Iroonically they all seem to be falling over themselves to lend me money on credit cards on an unsecured basis but not enough to buy the property. It seems to me they're basing this refusal to lend on their 'affordability criteria', ie- that this lending is un-affordable because I'm not in receipt of any income from paid employment. I find this utterly laughable because at current rates the mortgage would cost about £100/month and could be fixed for between five and ten years.... Also that the mortgage interest would be paid by the DWP under SMI anyway. I suspect this is indirect discrimination, in that they are applying this rule to all applicants and it's indirectly discriminating against disabled people who are much less likely to have income from work owing to the disabilities that they have. I just wondered if anyone here could indicate as to the likelihood of this being deemed indirect discrimination under the Equality Act if it were taken to court and any recent judgements that may be relevant, case law etc?
I went through a light on a traffic light controlled roundabout. I was stopped by the traffic police and told that I had ran a red light because *their* light was green. They were waiting at the lights of the next junction of the roundabout. As far as I'm concerned that's an inference based on an assumption. If I'd been charged with a speeding offence they'd need to produce a calibration certificate for any equipment used to prove that charge. As far as I'm aware, traffic lights do not come with calibration certificates. Is this worth defending in court? At the moment I'm looking at 3 points & 60 pounds. I have no points on my licence. Thanks!