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Hi, I wanted to get some opinions/advice regarding an issue I have and wanted to know what the general feeling, or even better someone who has experienced this problem and what the outcome was.... I purchased an Audi A3 1.8TFSI and the car has the same oil consumption issue as the 2.0 TFSI (mainly Audi A5's but A3 and other models also). I went for the 1.8TFSI as I didn't think it had the same oil consumption issue but it appears it does, just less well known. My local Audi dealer is doing all of the tests and in a couple of weeks they will have all of the details to put forward to Audi UK for a solution and a cost and what they expect me to contribute towards it if I have the work done. Audi say that the more main dealer services you have had, the more favourable this will be looked at and and if you were to have the next service with them, this would help also. Through speaking with my contact, he seems to think that the dealer that sold me the car (non Audi) could be liable for the cost of any repairs as he sold the car to me and the car clearly has a fault. I countered this by saying the dealer is likely to say it's a known Audi issue therefore the issue is with Audi and they are liable. Who is liable?? The dealer who sold the car or Audi? Thanks in advance.
My annual gas consumption varied between 402 and 482 cu.ft. between 2007 and 2012. This past year my consumption has increased by 39.4%, which I cannot explain: 1/08/11 to 1/08/12: 437 cu.ft. 1/08/12 to 1/08/13: 609 cu.ft. No changes to my gas installation or my usage of gas have occurred during the past year. I retired in 2004 and live alone. My home had new double glazing fitted to all windows and doors, cavity wall and loft insulation installed in 2005. A new warm air heater was installed in March 2010. My hot water is supplied from an electric immersion heater. My gas meter was manufactured by Parkinson Cowan, modified by George Wilson Industries, type R5. It was installed on 18/05/1999. I tested my gas installation for a leak by comparing full meter readings over a 10 hour period. The reading was unchanged, so I do not think there is a leak present. A graphical analysis of my gas consumption readings for 1/08/12 to 1/08/13 compared with 1/08/11 to 1/08/12 shows a diverging increase throughout the period related to the consumption. I suspected my gas meter was faulty, so I reported this matter to EDF Energy. At its request, I recorded meter readings for two 5-day periods. EDF Energy does not think the meter is faulty. I would appreciate advice on what steps I should take next.
Hi everyone, this is my first time on this forum so I hope I'm doing this right... I have some concerns over a recent energy bill that I've received and would greatly appreciate some advice, I have looked through some other threads that are similar but don't seem to find anything relating to my problem. Anyway, here it is... Since about September/October last year I have been having some major issues with my boiler. The pressure was either on zero everyday or over 3.1 which was too high, it had a leak that was going outside and it also wasn't heating the radiators at the front of the house enough and they were barely luke warm when the heating was on. The problem seemed worse as the colder months approached. My landlord has been very accommodating and arranged for a plumber to come out on a number of occasions since October 2012 but it's taken until now to resolve. My problem now is that I've just received an energy bill (dual fuel) of £600 from Nov 2012 to March 1st based on an accurate meter reading. This is on top of £136 I pay direct debit each month. Now, I know energy has gone up in price but I was honestly shocked to see this bill so high. Out of the £600, £530 of it was on gas alone, for just over 4 months (like I said, on top of my monthly payments.) So here are my questions, does that bill sound high to anyone and could the issues with the boiler cause me to have a bill like that? Here is a rough breakdown of some info that may be helpful ... I live in a 4 bedroom mid terrace house, double glazed throughout, loft insulation and carpeted in the majority of the house. I have roughly had my heating on for about 5 hours a day (maybe a bit more during winter as I have a two year old) my gas oven is used of an evening to cook tea and we have two showers in the morning and some hot water throughout for dishes etc. My husband is out all day and I too work part time so not in the house 24/7. Over Christmas we were away for two weeks and also away for a week in Feb so I turned the heating down and know the gas wasn't being used nearly as much. I've had a gas check in Nov and everything was apparently ok but I was still having problems with the boiler beforehand and afterwards. I know nothing about gas meters and if I want it checked I'll have to pay £90 if it's not found to be faulty which I can't afford. Could my landlord be liable for this cost does anyone know? When I checked my bill from April/May to July/ August, even that was £435 (on top of my monthly payments) and I didn't really have the heating on but from what I recall, there were some niggling problems with the boiler even then and have records of me calling my landlord on my phone bill so I know I've been having continuous dealings with him over this issue. I really don't want to have to fork out £530 but I have a felling that the plumber will say the boiler has nothing to do with the high gas consumption. Whan I contacted Npower about this and explained, he even thought that my consumption was quite based on what I said, which did surprise me. I'm stuck as to what to do really. Any advice please? I'm sorry this is so long but thank you in advance Danielle