Showing results for tags 'charge on property'.
Found 6 results
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In the late 1980's my husband and I re-mortgaged our house, for the market value which was arond the £90,000 mark, with the West Bromwich Bromwich Building Society. Due to the ressession and my husband being made redundant we were no longer able to keep up repayments and our house was repossed in 1991. Since this time, we have been lucky enough to purchase another home using an interest only mortgage which we are still paying. Unbeknown to us at the time, as our property had been undersold, a deficit was incurred. It was not until approximately 10/11 years later that we were contacted by West Brom and informed that we owed £112,000. Due to alleged 'compound interest' this figure has now risen to £165,000. Although we have denied the debt, we have been forced by bullying tacticts into monthly repayments of £200 for the last 6/7 years. They also have placed a charge on our present property. My husband and I are both in our 60's. He is retired and unable to assist me in dealing with this due to serious mental health problems. Can any anyone please advise me on the legality of their actions? I can be no clearer on the exact dates as I am not in possession of the original documentaction and am awaiting duplicates from West Brom. Thank you in anticipation. -
Hello, I got a divorce in 1996, and during the proceedings I was awarded a charge over a property (50%) to be realised on the death of my mother in law, who lived in the property at the time, she passed away last year and my ex husband will not accept any offers made on the house, which he has to deal with as part of his mothers estate. I just wanted to know what ways I can enforce this charge, and what type of charge it is, it was created by deed but through divorce proceedings. any info is much appreciated. Thanks!
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Greetings All, Just received a 'Seizure & Distrain' letter through our door from Newlyn plc marked for my father's attention, chasing some £300-worth in items from our home over some "Road Traffic Contravention" charge held against his final car from way back in October 2010. The joke of it? My father died in April 2010. His final car was sold to someone else a good 2 months before he died... a good 8 months before the "contravention" charge was incurred. Oh... And the letter doesn't even have any signature or local authority/county court stamp. Any thoughts on how to deal with this nonsense swiftly and effectively? Along with how the hell a charge incurred by someone else could come back to our doorstep? Please let me know, people. Cheers. -
please can you help. I have a charge on my partners property for half the value of the house plus a few more thousand pounds. The relationship is coming to an end and I will need to realise the money to enable me to buy a property for myself. I understand that I can force an order of sale. Please can you tell me if this is the case and, if so, how I go about this. There is no mortgage on the property. He also owns other property and land. I have always paid half monthly costs e.g. council tax, tv licence, insurance etc.
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In the late 1980's my husband and I re-mortgaged our house, for the market value which was arond the £90,000 mark, with the West Bromwich Bromwich Building Society. Due to the ressession and my husband being made redundant we were no longer able to keep up repayments and our house was repossed in 1991. Since this time, we have been lucky enough to purchase another home using an interest only mortgage which we are still paying. Unbeknown to us at the time, as our property had been undersold, a deficit was incurred. It was not until approximately 10/11 years later that we were contacted by West Brom and informed that we owed £112,000. Due to alleged 'compound interest' this figure has now risen to £165,000. Although we have denied the debt, we have been forced by bullying tacticts into monthly repayments of £200 for the last 6/7 years. They also have placed a charge on our present property. My husband and I are both in our 60's. He is retired and unable to assist me in dealing with this due to serious mental health problems. Can any anyone please advise me on the legality of their actions? I can be no clearer on the exact dates as I am not in possestion of the original documentaction and am awaiting duplicates from West Brom. Thank you in anticipation.
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Mortgage invalid if derivatised like in the USA. Would this fall foul of the statute law in any way like: being unable to show one owner, or demonstrate title, can a mortgage title be transferred without the other parties consent if not in default, if the bank has changed ownership does the title change have to be registered on the charge documentation. Any help on where to look for the relevant regs etc Thanks.
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