Don't want to bore you all silly so will try and keep it brief. My LL issued my partner and I a Section 21 on the 19th December 2011 requiring possession by 29th February 2012. Had so many problems with the property and the incompetent landlord so decided to go and moved out week before end of Feb. Needed to tax my car so asked my brother to go and see if he could get the post from old address (DVLA reminder), back door left open so got in. The Landlord had taken us to court to evict us and the court had awarded them the costs of £175. This really peeved me off as I had told them we would be moving out. Done a bit of research on here and some other places and read about the prescribed information and invalid Section 21's. Made an application to the court to have the order set aside under 2 points. 1. Section 21 was not served correctly as missing prescribed information as per the notices to quit regulations 1988 no 2201. 2. Landlord has not protected the tenants deposit correctly. Failed to supply me with prescribed information. Went to court this morning and the Judge wasn't really interested in what I had to say, and because the Landlord said I hadn't returned the keys when we moved out (they were posted to them) he said he wouldn't set aside the order. 10 minutes before going into the court room I was given some paperwork from the Landlords agent with their reasons and wanted to check with you guys if they are correct. Point 1 (from above) Mr Me is excluded from this act as the notices to quit regulations 1988 is for tenancies given under the rent act 1977. Mr Me's tenancy was an assured shorthold tenancy agreement under the housing act 1988. The Housing act 1988 does not give a specific format for the wording of a section notice, only that the notice has to be clear and unambiguous. Point 2 (from above) A letter with the prescribed information and the terms and conditions was sent to the tenant but he failed to return the signed letter as requested. Section 2.13 of the housing act 2004,5 & 6, give details of the prescribed information that the landlord has to supply the tenant with, it does not say that the tenant has to respond or confirm that he has received the information. The interesting point here is I was given a copy of the prescribed information form that they said they sent me back in July 2010 when the tenancy started. It is not signed by me and I do not remember receiving it. The terms and conditions attached to this document quite clearly state that they are from April 2012 (at the bottom of page to show revisions) so basically she has just printed them off and is trying to pass them off as being sent to me in July 2010. I told the Judge this and again he didn't seem to care. Isn't this fraud? I'm trying to book myself in to speak to a solicitor now as the managing agent has charged us rent up until 13th June as they say this is the legal date we moved out which is around £3500. It's really infuriating. please help

Hi All I have just recently sent off SAR requests to several banks / lenders giving them 40 days to comply however, I have had my SAR request and cheque returned by Santander with a covering letter stating the following: We refer to your recent correspondence. Based on the information you have provided - name, address(es) and date of birth - we regret that we cannot locate any Unsecured Personal Loan account data. In accordance with Section 7 (3) of the Data Protection Act 1998, Santander UK Plc is not obliged to comply with your request unless you have provided enough information that enables us to locate the data subject and the account data you seek. We would like to advise you that historical information can only be retained for legitimate reasons, therefore some personal data may no longer be held as it has been deleted in line with our retention policy. In circumstances where our relationship ceased with the customer more than six years ago we do not retain the documentation required, there we are not obliged to provide this information in accordance with guidelines set by the Financial Services Authority. I was unable to provide any account numbers when I sent the original SAR to Santander but gave them my name, address and DOB. I had 2 accounts which Santander are responsible for - a loan with Alliance & Leicester and a revolving loan account with Cahoot, both of which were paid off in full in 2010. I'm unsure how to proceed and what reply to send to Santander, any help & advice would be greatly appreciated.

We moved out of our tenanted property four weeks ago. It was nothing but hassle - house literally falling down - very unresponsive landlord and ‘managing’ agents. Anyway we have not yet received any response to the inventory and certainly no commitment to refund the deposit which is held with TDS We chase and chase the agents but they say there’s nothing they can do until the lanlord comes back in writing. We could really do with that money but its obvious the landlord isn’t bothered. Does anyone have any thoughts on how we could accelerate matters? Thanks v much GIB

Hello all - firstly, I'm sorry if this is not the correct sub-forum for this question! My mother has been trying to sell a property she owns in Europe, and early last year found a prospective buyer. The sale was agreed to be conducted by proxy through an estate agent near the property, and my mother completed her part immediately. She then heard nothing from the buyer for over a month, and I encouraged her to look for a new buyer. Before the sales process started again with a new buyer, however, the original buyer contacted her and said he was still interested in the property, and my mother agreed to continue with the sale. After being messed about and promises of action for a few more months, she again heard nothing from him for a while, and eventually called him to say whe would be looking for a different buyer, as she has been incurring bills every few months for the property. This was in September of last year, and the buyer said they were still interested, and said they wanted to transfer £2000 to my mother as a deposit (and so she didn't have to worry about the bills). Again, sporadic communication from the "buyer", and after he claimed he had sent the official papers to the agent, and he "thought he had sent the deposit but was unsure" (the agents deposit, not the deposit to my mother), he then became impossible to reach; my mother even called his business several times, where employees said they had passed on messages but she couldn't reach him directly as he hadn't been out of the office. The agent had heard nothing from him, and received no money, and she'd been unable to contact him for several months, so she then stopped trying to reach him and a few months later (earlier this year) she began the sale with a different buyer, with whom things seem to be progressing nicely.. Today, she received an email from the first buyer saying he would be taking legal action over the deposit he'd paid the agent and the deposit he'd paid my mother unless she immediately gave him the money back - the money has been used to pay the bills incurred for the property during the last few months, so only half remains. As I see it, if he has genuinely paid any money to the Agent, he'll easily be able to prove this and reclaim from them, so it makes me wonder why he'd brought this information up with my mother in such a way. Also, given his elusive behaviour, and having claimed to have sent necessary papers when he surely hadn't (how many times can the same documents get lost in the post?), and as bills were incurred as a result of his actions, I see no reason why he should receive any of the deposit he paid to my mother back? Furthermore, the only record of such a deposit is an email confirmation from my mother to him stating that the deposit had been paid to hold onto the house for a bit longer as he was dealing with a sick family member; once this had been resolved if he decided not to contact my mother or progress any further with the sale I think that was his choice? Can any CAG members advise where my mother stands legally regarding this issue? Thanks for help, and sorry for the essay!

Just after a bit of advice really and where i stand on this issue. I recently sent my computer away for repair, there was absolutely nothing cosmetically wrong with it was just overheating which i was assured could be fixed as i have an extended warranty, was returned to me today via courier, opened the box to discover the top half of my computer was hanging on via a single wire and all my recovery / windows discs were smashed up. I refused to sign for the item as it was damaged and it was sent back. I have obviously contacted comet, i'm just not sure what will happen and who's fault it is really.

I've been caught out a couple of times by direct debits and standing orders leaving my account when there have been insufficient funds (mainly to Barclaycard). Because of this, they have then been returned as unpaid. However, on each occasion I have realised and immediately made a deposit into my account the same day by faster payments (usually first thing in the morning on the day concerned, and the deposit shows almost instantly in online banking). But it seems that this is too late and the payment is still returned. I have phoned up each time, again on the day, and asked if they can reapply the DD, but apparently they cannot, so each time I've reapplied the payment by other means (faster payments). But I still get charged by both parties for the reversed dd. This seems a bit harsh, is there anything I can do to not get charged in this situation? Looks like I've fallen foul of this again today - I transferred money in at 1am, but the DD had already left my account, taking me £3 beyond my limit. No sign of it being returned yet...

I purchased a PC power supply just before Christmas, after upgrading my graphics card 2 months ago I uncovered a fault with the power supply where the fan would constantly run at full speed when I played games. I did some research and discovered that this was a known problem with this power supply. I was originally going to send it back to the manufacturer as they indicated that they would be happy to swap it, however their only European returns center was in the Netherlands and it was going to cost me £30+ to send it. So I went to the website that sold it to me and filed for an RMA. I sent the power supply back and they quickly informed me that they had found no fault. (I mean quickly, within 2 hours of them acknowledging that they had recieved the PSU in the first place) So I said I wasn't happy with this and asked exactly how they tested it. They replied stating they would test it for longer and get back to me. They did the next day and said they still couldn't find a fault so I asked again exactly how they were testing it. Despite telling them exactly what I'm using in my PC, they said they tested it with components that were using about 150-200W LESS power than what I'm using. This is a fault that only occurs when the PSU is close to full load, they were testing it under half load. I was unable to resolve this issue before going on holiday for 3 weeks. After getting back on Saturday I e-mailed asking for any updates. They just replied stating that they had tested it on several setups, sometimes for 24-48 hours (but didn't say exactly what the setups were, so I have no idea if they are close to what I'm actually using) and to contact the returns department to arrange for me to pay for the testing and return of the PSU. I have just replied again, asking them why they think I would return a perfectly good PSU, and for them to say EXACTLY what setups they tested it with. I can see myself going round and round in circles with them though so I need some advice: If they either don't say exactly how they tested it, or they do but it's not with a setup that is comparable to my own, can they legally ask me to pay for the testing and return? What happens in a "my word against theirs" situation? I need my PC for work, I am now without work and money (so couldn't pay for the testing or return anyway), I have no reason to lie about the PSU being faulty, it's not caused by anything else in my PC, and it's a known fault with that PSU. This has been more touble than it's worth and I just want my PC back now.

Hi, I have recently transferred bank accounts to Nationwide and I had a direct debit set up that is due today (monday) so I transferred the money across from my other account yesterday (sunday) via faster payments and it was there, available, immediately. However, I checked that it had gone this morning and it has but, it is listed first and then showing my balance as -157.00 and then the credit below bringing it back up to zero so if the money was available yesterday, how come it wasn't this morning when the direct debit went out and it is showing as paid in after the dd went out. My question is will this now be returned and charges applied? Doesn't seem right to me!

Hi I bought a car through Welcome Car finance at one of their showrooms about 5 years ago. 20 months ago I couldn't afford to keep running the car and the repairs needed. I spoke to a very nice gentleman who suggested I give the car back to them. They collected the car and wrote telling me that they had allowed me £600 off the debt and what the remaining balance was (around £2500). however since then, I have been told that if I give the car back to the finance company, I should not have to make any further payments and in fact they could even be liable to give money back to me for everything above 50% of the repayments. I have certainly paid more than half over the years. But when I called them to ask about it, I was just told no that's not the case. Trading Standards have quote the Supply of Goods Act (Implied term) 1973 but it not exactly easy reading. I was told to write to their complaints department and give them 14 days. then to make a complaint to the financial ombudsman. But I feel I need to get my head around the actual law in order to word the letter of complaint. Can anyone help me please