The Consumer Rights Act (CRA) will apply in full to all transport services, including mainline rail passenger services, from next month, allowing passengers to challenge the amount of compensation they are offered by rail companies. From the start of next month, under the Consumer Rights Act, passengers will be able to ask for their money back by going to a local county court if they are not happy with the way a rail operator has dealt with their request for compensation. Long-suffering commuters will also be allowed to demand that compensation is paid in cash rather than train vouchers. Under existing guidelines most train operators only offer a ‘delay repay’ deal which allows passengers to claim the cost of half a single journey for delays of more than half an hour – or the full one-way ticket price if held up for over an hour. It is only if a train is cancelled, or a vital connection missed, that a full refund of a return journey will be paid. These refunds are not automatic – you must fill in a form first – and they are currently paid in train journey vouchers. The new rules will allow passengers to demand all their money back if they believe the compensation offered is inadequate – or they believe they deserve a full refund as the service fell well short of what they had expected. Read more: http://www.thisismoney.co.uk/money/news/article-3783016/Delayed-leaves-line-train-company-court.html#ixzz4KtQ6t3ff

Says it all in the title really. Without naming names, I sued a financial institution a little over a year ago, the case was compromised by Tomlin. For various reasons [mainly because the terms were thrashed out in 20 minutes in front of a slightly grumpy dj] the agreement made no mention of CRA's. Not particularly a biggie as I got 90% of the money I was claiming and the default was due to drop off about 60 days later anyway. Roll forward a few months and it [a few weeks ago] began reporting the account again. This time without the default marker but with an erroneous £12.00 balance [would have to assume its created a balance with a late payment/other charge]. Ergo, the account was reported as defaulted for 6 years, disappeared for a few months and later reappeared at year 7 with no markers. My problem is....... .what exactly within the DPA prescribes the 6 year data reporting. The ICO guidance [at January 2014] certainly defines that it shouldn't be but what within the instrument says that it must cease at the expiry of 6 years and what prescribes that the account cannot return to normal status at any point during or after 6 years of reporting a default? Is this a simple matter of acting contrary to principle/s in manipulating the data?

this just happened to a friend. .. warrant was issued 12 months ago to old address AFTER the new rules came into force. the 12 month period has just elapsed, my friend expecting that "it's safe to come out now" contacted the bailiffs by phone. Note, my friend was found and contacted about a month ago only by email and no evidence has been provided so far to confirm the debt was valid, they sent each other a couple of emails mainly disagreeing with each other. It turns out that one of the emails sent by the bailiff (2 days before 12 months passed) was their idea of a "payment agreement".. . of course this was never acknowledged of agreed to by my friend and the exact wording I am waiting to find out, can the bailiff simply create this payment agreement without agreement from the alleged debtor? The result is that the bailiff has reset the 12 month clock with a simple email. Please someone tell me this isn't right. Thanks

Hi,I recently just paid off my IVA six months early and I'm coming off my interest only period with NRAM who to be fair have been good enough to stick to it but in three months I go back to repayment increasing payments by £300 will NRAM extend my mortgage term to help reduce the payment. Cheers nafjor

I have unsuccessfully challenged a parking ticket which relates to parking on the verge or pavement adjacent to a highway (with double yellow lines on it) and now await the 'notice to owner' to continue the challenge. I am aware of the rules (now they have been detailed) of the verge and pavement area being included in the road markings which are adjacent to such. However, how far doe this extend to? I parked on a paved area which; was not on the 5m wide grassed area immediately next to the road; nor the 5m wide footpath which ran alongside the grassed area; but on the next area (also paved) which was separated from the footpath by a raised kerb type edging. This means i parked 10m away from the highway - past the verge, past the footpath - does the rule still apply here and where does it then end. Would the rule apply 20m away? 30? 100?