Hi all just want some feedback with regards to where I stand, I purchased my car in October 2016 from a reputable car supermarket. The car had 103k miles on it at the time and I purchased it for £7000. I took finance through a company and have had the car for 26 months now. I have 10 payments left before car is mine. Today I wanted to go car shopping and thought I would go and have a look at a few cars and see what price I would get for mine. I visited a garage and they began to put a valuation onto my car after doing so the guy came back to me and said sorry we cannot have your car as it has a mileage discrepancy. I am not aware of this I asked to see there hpi report that he produced. In August 2015 it went for mot and had 76k on it. It then went to the manufacturer for whatever reason in Jan 2016 and the car had 126k on it, it then went back to the manufacturer for work in May 2016 and it had 95k then it had a mot in August 2016 at 100k before it was sold to me in October 2016. Am I legally entitled to fight this case ? as though it has been 2 years I never knew of this and if I had I wouldn’t have purchased the vehicle. I am now stuck as no one will buy my vehicle with mileage discrepancy on even though the garage who sold it to me did not declare anything to me. I have all invoices at time of sale and it has the mileage what was on car at time of sale. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

Hi Firstly, those in debt finding it hard to see light at the end of the tunnel, don't be disheartened, it can be done. After 8 years, I am within 9 months of being debt free. however, this hasn't been without issues and I could do with some advice on what should be my last issue.... Sorry for the length, just don't know best course of action... thanks in advance for any help I defaulted on an Egg credit card, they sold the debt to Arc Europe. Barclaycard bought Egg. Barclaycard transferred the debt to Moorcroft. I have consistently paid the agreed monthly amount. However, during the transfer from Arc to Moorcroft 3 payments went to Arc totalling c£250. In July 2016, Moorcroft sent me a letter stating an incorrect outstanding balance, incorrect by the same c£250 exactly. In November 2016, I wrote the following to Moorcroft (names & reference no's excluded, and amounts rounded to avoid identification).. In reply to your letter dated dd/07/2016 stating the balance was £x. I disagree with this balance, my balance is £y. This represents a difference of c£250, which equates to monthly payments of £z. My account transferred from ARC to Moorcroft in September 2011. At this time, my balance with ARC was £6k, before my September 2011 payment. This is confirmed in your letter dated dd/10/2011. I am not aware of missing any payments, can you provide a full breakdown of the account including any interest or charges applied please? Today, I believe the balance is £a. I will not pay any additional balance until I receive a full breakdown of the account including any interest or charges applied. Please do provide a full breakdown of the account including any interest or charges applied. Today, they have responded with (pleasantries have been excluded) Our client has advised that they have a balance of c£900 on their system. a letter is attached from our client as confirmation. The attached letter (on very poor Barclaycard letterhead and unprofessional format) says dd/12/2016 Dear Sir/Madam RE : My name - Account No. my account number Thanks for contacting us. Unfortunately, statements are no longer produced on the above account. I can confirm that the outstanding balance of the Account As of today is c£900. I trust this information is of assistance to you. Any queries, contact us, we are here to help. So in summary, I know why we disagree with the balance. Moorcroft won't acknowledge this. Moorcroft have created a fictitious letter from Barclaycard trying to pass it off as from Barclaycard. The debt is no longer on my credit file, it is clean. I suspect if I contact Barclaycard they won't recognise the account. All payments since Sept 11 have been paid to Moorcroft using their reference number, except the 3 made to ARC. what do I do? 1) stop payments immediately 2) report Moorcroft to FCA 3) subject access request to Moorcroft 4) send Moorcroft a firm letter as per - you are wrong. payments have been made to Moorcroft not Barclay - you are fraudulent. you should create fictitious letters using someone else letterhead. - offer 10% of the correct balance to go away? help please....

I am seeking some advice on inequitable rates of pay at my place of work. I had to do several vocational qualifications for the post. The first of which was compulsory and a wage increase was payable on qualification. I obtained this pay rise after passing the exam in 2009, and have gone on to do 2 additional certificates, each with a small pay increment applied. It has recently come to light that a colleague, who joined the company a few weeks before me and who failed the first exam was given an equivalent pay rise regardless, and on passing on her second attempt she has received a further raise and is now earning more than me! It appears that I have been penalized for studying and getting it right the first time. My predicament is how to confirm the facts as this is based on 3rd party information (from another colleague) and, if it is confirmed, how to then approach my employer and plead the case for an equivalent raise. Anyone out there with similar experience or advice to offer? Thanks!

My parent died 5 years ago and a sibling acted as Executor. I have never seen the Will (despite requests) and the Probate Office has no record which indicates it did not go to Probate even though there was property and effects involved which have since been distributed. I thought I was also named as an Executor (along with a third sibling) but, of course, since I haven't seen the Will I have no way of knowing for sure. I have contacted the solicitors who, as far as I know, dealt with the Will and they say they were not asked to do the Probate and do not know if any subsequent Wills were made but if I wanted a copy of the Will they do hold I would need a copy of the Death Certificate and the permission of the other Executors, the latter being the problem due to lack of cooperation. This being the case, plus the apparent lack of Probate - meaning the Will is therefore not in the public domain - is there any other way I can obtain a copy? I would like to be certain the assets were disposed of in accordance with the wishes of the deceased as I have reason to believe there may be some discrepancy. I have discovered the deceased made several Wills before death (while in the care of the Executor sibling), two in the same month, and the property has not gone to the person the deceased and their spouse (who died first) always wished it to (which was not me, by the way). How can one be certain it is indeed the very last Will & Testament that's been acted upon by an Executor - or that it's been carried out properly? If Probate has not been granted, can anyone who has a Will of a deceased person obtain Probate - in other words, is it the first person to get there, so to speak? Can someone dispose of property and/or effects without Probate? Are beneficiaries entitled to see the Will?