Hello, I have three defaults on my credit report. Do they ever expire? I keep paying £1.00 to my creditors every month but since my credit score is bad and defaults are shown to lenders I have no hope to get work or start a business. Is there any hope to get those defaults moved from my credit report? All the debts are more than six years old.

Hey. Newbie here.. Okay, Sorry this might be a long one as I don't want to miss anything out! So over the 26 years ive been alive I have got myself in a pickle; default city to be honest, mostly low-level everything combined is under 8k. I have just got a lump sum of money to pay off my debts to help recover my credit score so I can one day buy a house. Now checking my credit score I started going through one by one going to pay them off, I got to Lloyds and they have sold my 3 debts to two companies ( 1 is Credit Security LTD and 2 is Robbins way ), I have had these loans outstanding for 3 years or so and they have never contacted me ( got 2 letters from credit security but nothing from robins way ) i only found this out ringing up Lloyds, the default shows up on my credit file from Lloyds and that's it. Do I contact these people or not? I can't remove the Default either way so what should I do? and if I don't do anything that can happen, the amounts of these are £1525. £870.00 & £1800. This is where my second question comes in, my old phone contracts ( yes I was stupid ) have been sold to Lowell, now I never ever saw them as a threatening as they would send letter after letter and that's it nothing came of it for a few years ( back from 2014 2016 2017), stupidly when I decided to set up a DMP a year ago it classed as I made contact with them ( so resets the 6 year time frame ), now they have now left 3 defaults on my credit file, why is it under THEIR name and not orange etc like the Lloyds? I paid them £50.00 today and going to call up to pay a payment plan, I do have enough money to pay them all off today but is it worth it or just paying per month and keep some money aside? (it's 2400 altogether), now reflecting back on that should I of paid them or just ignore them as it would have got written off? Why have THEY put the default on my account instead of the business itself and not the other company that's taken over my Lloyds account? Why is my Credit file showing nothing of these other debt companies, if it is not on your credit report does it really matter? Sorry, I'm a little bit of a newbie at this! I know when default goes on your credit file it stays there for 6 years and there is nothing I can do about that.. right?

Hi, I know there are a fair few similar threads here about the same type of things but I wanted to put down my details here in case there is any guidance with my specific situation. I recently started looking into my credit report after being refused for a credit card. I generally don’t use credit products but was advised that I should as I’m looking to get a mortgage in the next 2 years. I found I have 4 defaults on there. 2 From Yorkshire Water. One from Lowell (relating to a BT account). One from Hutchinson 3G (Lowell). The 2 Yorkshire water default are being removed after conversations with them. These were at 2 addresses I was registered at living in but never actually did. (A bit complicated, I rented a room in a property but was living with my girlfriend at the time. Early relationship, needed back up) The Lowell default relating to BT is from one of these properties, but I put my name on the account so I accept this one. The Three one is where it gets a bit more complicated. My Mobile Phone contract is with Three and it has been for 7 years. I have never missed a payment or been late with payments. The problem with the default is that it’s showing separately and is registered at my parents address. I live there when I was younger but not for about 12 years. My father has the exact same name as me and lives at this address. I believe this default is related to him in some way but I have tried contacting Three and they can’t find any record of the default. On the credit report it looks to be linked with my DoB but once again, I have no idea why. It’s getting increasingly difficult getting any information out of Three in reference to this so I’m a little bit stuck. Any advice on what my next steps should be in terms of both of these outstanding Debts would be great.

I am in a DMP and have been since the beginning of this year. Natwest loan £4889 Natwest OD £1249 JD Williams £1749 Very £771 I have been self running a DMP and paying each £1 for 4 months. I am upping my payments from July to: Natwest loan £57 Natwest OD £15.37 JD Williams £20.65 Very £1 According to my noodle report Natwest have me at DM(4) for May, JD Williams has had me at DM(UC) since March and Very the following: Jan - DM(1) Feb - DM(1) Mar - AR(UC) Apr - AR(UC) May - AR(UC) With Very placing AR markers does that mean I'm unlikely to get a default anytime soon? JD Williams & Very are both being reported as up to date even though I am in arrears of £278 for Very and also JD Williams, though neither are adding interest, that is just Natwest. I have heard Very is terrible at defaulting and you have to either not pay or not clear arrears within 1 year. The whole point of a DMP is to get defaults and clear credit history in 6 years. Isn't AR worse than a default?

I have two unpaid defaults from August 2012 and would like some clarity and advice about what to do. I know defaults drop off the credit file after 6 years but what actually happens to my file if the accounts remain unpaid? I know its not the same as being statue barred and i believe i have made a payment to both in the last 3 years or so One of the defaults i am not actively being chased for it and havent been for years The other one I am being chased for but the dca has agreed to give me 30 days to sort myself out (find emoloyment) and has froze the account during this time What I want to avoid is the situation of the defaults dropping off the file, but then they issue a CCJ. And what if I agreed to a payment plan which at the moment would take a very long time to pay off? Eventually the account(s) would be closed but wouldnt dissapear from my file until 6 years after the last payment i made? So is it either not do anything, let the defaults drop off and risk a CCJ? Or come to a payment plan and have it cause problems for another 7-8 years? (1-2 to pay them off, and 6 for it to go from my file?)

Hi All... I hope you can help... I'll try to make this as short as possible. I was a victim of the financial crash.. the business I was in suffered massively and as a result, in 2010, my income reduced by almost 90%. I made arrangements with all my creditors when I could see this on the horizon (totalling around £100k) which have been in place ever since. The arrangements reflected my reduced earnings and most reduced to around 10% of the normal payment with the interest frozen. Most of my creditors subsequently registered defaults against me.. some quite soon after the start of the problems, some a few years later... which, now we are 8 years down the line, is great... a lot have dropped off my credit file and a few have only a short time to go until they do... BUT... i have 2 creditors, Nothern Rock (as was) and Nat west Bank, who refuse to register a default.. they just show late payments every month even though I am thousands in arrears and show as 6+ on my credit reports.. My question is, should they have registered defaults many years ago or can they effectively keep on punishing me, which will ultimately be, for the rest of my life, for an event out of my control? My business will never return to its former glory so I will never be in a position to clear these two debts in full. If I had declared myself bankrupt when the crap hit the fan, this would have been done and dusted many years ago and I would be pretty much back to normal but because I chose to do (what I thought) was the right thing and keep paying my creditors. Would the FOS agree that defaults should have been registered all those years ago or can nat west and Northern Rock keep causing me problems (and they are now becoming quite significant as I need to be credit checked for my work and for business accounts) Any help gratefully accepted Thanks H

Hi, I'm new around here! Looking for some advice regarding a debt I have with Lowell. In 2013 I left a property I was renting, BT contacted me about a month before I left saying that the new tenants would like to take over the service and wanted to know if I was happy to do this. As I was moving to a shared house, I couldn't take the service with me and agreed. A few months later, I got a bill for £599 from BT for the rest of the service that I had cancelled early. After a few phone calls where they continued to ask me to pay the bill I sent them a letter stating the above information and that I didn't want to pay. After this, I didn't hear anything about it and presumed that they had wiped it. Then around a year ago, I started receiving letters from Lowell saying that they have taken over the debt from BT and need to collect. I ignored the letters for a few months, until they started putting defaults on my credit file. As soon as this started, I contacted them and set up a payment plan as I was unable to pay the full amount. I have been paying a nominal amount for the past 6 months but Lowell continue to put a default on my credit file. I called them to ask why, as I am making payments. I can't remember the exact wording, but it was something along the lines of because it is not an active debt like a credit card they are able to default me every month until the debt is paid in full. Are they allowed to do this? I'm only paying a small amount on the debt, it could take a long time to clear, meanwhile my credit rating is dropping all the time.

Hi there I'm looking for some help and information. I got a copy of my credit file the other day after being refused a car loan. I was gobsmacked to see what had been going on. Firstly, Lowell appear to have bought a debt from Vodafone that doesn't in fact exist. I had a 12 month contract with Vodafone and when it finished I moved to another provider as I got a better deal. Vodafone tried to say that it was a 24 month agreement (which I know it wasn't as I wouldn't tie myself in for 2 years!) I asked them for a copy of the agreement along with a copy of the telephone call wherein the contract was agreed. They failed to respond...and failed to respond to a few follow up letters.... I thought that was the end of it. Clearly this has been sold to Lowell without a contract agreement and they have placed a default on my account without telling me. I have contacted the CRAs to advise and also Lowell to get them to produce a copy of the contract.. .explaining that it was a 12 month contract. What do I do when they can't provide a copy of it? They won't be able to provide it because it was a 12 month contract and I paid religiously throughout that agreement. Can I report this to the ICO as it has completely trashed my credit file? Any advice gratefully received....good or bad. The second thing is this. I became seriously ill in 2010 and it took some time for me to get some help with my mortgage and I incurred arrears. The mortgage company took me to court - does the calling up notice act as a default for the sake of dates? - and they were ordered to negotiate with me. No suspended possession order was placed on my account because the sheriff was really quite angry at the way I had been treated. Forward to 2017 and more than half those arrears are now paid off and religiously they have been getting the mortgage payment every month. On my credit file the mortgage company have noted that I am in default and am making late payments every single month. As I have no influence over when those payments are made and am considered to be a "protected person" under the The Equality Act 2010, shouldn't they have been sorting this out so that it shows a true reflection that the problems incurred 6 years ago and the mortgage has been getting paid every single month, with additional to pay off the arrears every month? Should they not also be showing that the arrears have been decreasing? They are basing the arrears on what I pay now for my mortgage and not what I paid when they were incurred. I was paying £700 a month in mortgage payments and now pay £250 with the latest rate increase. They are saying I am more than 6 months in arrears on the payment now when the actual arrears were incurred when my mortgage payment was much higher. Regarding the default. Should that also fall off after 6 years as it's still there as well as late payment markers. I think that the mortgage company should have changed the payment date as a reasonable adjustment so that my credit file reflected what was actually happening ie I was ill and incurred arrears now although I am still seriously ill my payments are made every month and I have paid off more than half the arrears. It looks like I am a really bad credit risk but it was a bad time in my life that I've now corrected. Surely this can't happen and it's not fair. I look forward to getting some advice on what to do about this. I have contacted all the CRAs but wondered if I should take it further. Also FOS has not recognised this lack of making reasonable adjustments for my situation as a protected person. Thanks a lot.

Can a creditor that's reported a default on CallCredit (but not Equifax or Experian) in 2013, suddenly start recording the default on Equifax at the start of 2017? Thanks.

Hi Everyone, I’m new to the forum so apologies if this is in the wrong section. Long story short I managed to get myself 3 defaults with Lowell with credit accounts I had when I was younger. Default 1 - £129 Vodafone, Default date 01/11/2013 (hasn’t got a default satisfaction date even though its been paid) Default 2 - £360 Shop Direct, Default date 09/02/2016 Default 3 - £170 Orange, Default date 01/11/2014 I genuinely didn’t know I had an outstanding balance on Vodafone and Orange, I thought both contracts had been cancelled. seeing as I took out both of the contracts in 2011 I couldn’t remember and I took Lowells word for it. Stupidly without knowing about these forums, I got scared by the Lowell letters and paid the Vodafone & Orange bill in 1 payment and the shop direct in 4 payments, without trying to ask Lowell for proof of debt etc. I’m now 24 and have 3 defaults on my credit rating, my chance of getting a mortgage in the next 4/5 years is very slim/impossible! Has anyone got any advice to try and get the 3 defaults wiped off my account? Is it too late to ask them to prove the debt existed seeing as I’ve already paid them all off in full, I’ve also read about going down the sympathy route and asking them to take the defaults off. I know its unlikely that I can get these defaults taken off seeing as I’ve already paid them off but I’m desperate and nothing to lose. Thanks in advance!

Hi all, Bit of background ... I fell into a bit of money trouble back in 2011/12 and fell behind with a multitude of things, which manifested in 7 defaults being placed on my credit file (I know, right?). I'm glad to say that all is reformed, I'm in stable employment, my finances are doing great (aside from not being able to get reasonable credit, of course) and the defaults have started to drop off (3 down, 4 to go). Once I had gotten myself back into full time employment, I settled all of my debts outright. One in particular was a credit card with MBNA/Virgin. I settled this directly with them. On review of my credit file, I noticed that MBNA and PRA Group were reporting two entries for this same debt. I wrote to the CRAs and they removed the MBNA entry, leaving PRA, which is showing as settled. My question is, if I settled the debt with MBNA directly and they registered the default, do PRA still have the right to process my data and keep this default on my file? Surely if any default should have remained, it should be MBNA, since they are the only company I dealt with and the creditor with whom I settled the balance? Thanks for your help!

Dear all, I have found these forums an excellent resource and would like to thank all the contributors! I hope I am posting in the right subsection of the forum. I have posted back in Feb 2012 when Halifax registered defaults. I complained to the FOS. The outcome was an apology, £500 in compensation, about £250 in costs and about £2000 to accout for the additional cost a higher mortgage rate over 2 years. I as satisfied with this and moved on. However problems have continued but with other companies piggybacking on the link Halifax/NatWest created. Most I have dealt by writing strongly worded letters and forwarding previous correspondence/experience with the banks. However CapQuest and Arrow Global have been stubborn and I still have two defaults from CapQuest which do not belong to me. They have conceded that a mistake has been made but have failed to amend the records on one CRA. I again sought review from the FOS who advised them to amend the data and offer me £200 in compensation. They have still not amended the data. I spoke to a Solicitor who quoted £2500 just to start looking at the case and issuing the initial letters to the companies involved! I have now gone on to issue a Claim via MCOL. Please see attached document. I now feel I should have sought some help here before pressing the button and going ahead with this as I have just pain £980 in court fees, having no legal background. I think this was more out of frustration. I will try and update this as I go along. Thanks for all your help CapQuest for CAG.pdf

Hi All My defaults are dropping off my file . Can a second default be initiated against any of them , either by the original lendor or DCA new or old. ? Or is it one default term per debt ? Thanks Andy

Hi everyone, long time lurker first time poster (Cheesy phrase but meh) Bit of background: 6-7 years ago at the ripe age of 19 and 20, I fell into quite a bad gambling habit and like many around 2010, I got roped in a vicious PDL TRAP! I'm a big believer NOW that at that age, we should not be allowed the credit afforded to us. I knew nothing of the consequences at the time and it took a few years for me to realise how detrimental the effects of bad credit were. I borrowed from Peter to pay Paul as the saying goes, at astronomical rates of APR from all of the lightly regulated (at the time) pay day lenders - Wonga, Payday UK, wageday advance, lending stream, text loan, uncle buck etc etc. This obviously didn't end well and eventually the wolves where at the door! Also at this time and In my desperate situation (and on a teenagers wage), I was somehow allowed an overdraft with Halifax of over 2k + Natwest wanted me to open an account with them, and allowed an overdraft...to a 19 year old....of £4000!!! Obviously I don't blame anyone but myself for these issues and actions, but I do feel that the regulations weren't there to protect me from these spiralling issues. Now its 2017. My creditors are all paid off and satisfied. My defaults begin falling off at the end of January and my final one (CCJ) ends in November. The advice I'm looking for from the 'forum experts', so to speak is this: - Is it possible to discuss with ex creditors to have defaults removed a few months early? (There is some sketchy data on my credit report including missing markers all over the place etc and obviously back in 2010 there was less regulations and the affordability was pretty much none existent). -I have 1 default with 'Lending Stream' On my 'Noddle' and 'experian' report it states the default date as 'November 2012', yet...I took out a credit agreement with Lending Stream in 2010! And I'm aware they only have 6 months to add a default marker once the relationships as broken down so how on earth do I have a marker over 18 months later on a PDL? Surely this is arguable. - My CCJ is solid in place, aside from a court appearance and great argument I'm assuming this is unremovable until 6 years after initial application of the CCJ? I haven't sent off my satisfaction request letter yet though and need to soon, Do you guys think this will make much of an impact on my file? - My main question, When will I be able to start going to a broker to apply for a mortgage? When will my credit be 'A OK'? I have been accepted for 1 credit card over 8 months ago with vanquis to which I have stayed within the £150 limit and paid off in full each month but this doesn't seem to have affected my 'score'. And I have recently been accepted with Capital One for a £1000 credit card Which I intend to use at the same amount as the Vanquis card only I read somewhere "Credit accounts over £1000 show CR checkers that you're a lower risk". That's about it really. Thanks for reading and sorry for the wall of text. If anyone is having similar issues to the ones I have mentioned, feel free to message me. I've had some pretty nightmarish times over the past 6 years. Key advice: Don't bury your head if it gets really bad, it will genuinely only get so much worse. It just keeps adding up until you eventually speak to someone. Tell each creditor you're struggling, set up a plan. If it's gone to far, research free DMP companies, I paid £50 per month admin fee for mine for 6 years to which I now regret as all of my money wasn't going to creditors.

Hi guys, would appreciate your help on this. I currently have 25K of debt which is being administered with Payplan. I defaulted on all accounts in 2012 during a separation. Next year I should be receiving early inheritance to the value of 25/30K So I would love to clear all outstanding debts and be debt free. However I would like to apply for a mortgage with my new partner in a couple of years and understand that companies like Halifax look at your credit file in fine detail. A - Should I clear all debts at 100% of value before the 6 year default period ends (a couple are offering settlement options now) B - Wait until the 6 years are up? Then ask for settlement figures Full/Partial I don't want to partially settle if it reflects badly with high street lenders in the future.. I really appreciate your help! Thanks Roj.

A mate has had a "Pre Legal Assessment " letter from lowlifes, I was told account was Cap One card opened around 2001 via post due to job loss nothing apart from token £1 paid from 2010, for a year or so until C1 stopped them from being able to make online payments, they then phoned them constantly asking for payments, given to Lowell in 2014 whereupon it appears they added their own default. I think the balance of around £3.6K is chock full of charges and late payment fees. Would SAR to Cap1 help establish original default date, and what are lowlifes chances on this one? Have told them to register with Clearscore and Noddle to check what else might be lurking in there.

Hey, I have two defaults that are registered under lowell however they are originally from Orange on my credit file and I am really not sure what they are about or any dates etc. Whats the best way of finding out what they are for, the date of the original default and any other information which might prove useful in my search to try and clean up the horror show that is my credit report ? Thanks Scott

Hi Everyone, thanks for reading. I have 2 defaults amounting to about £15k. I went through the entire process of seeing if they were enforceable and it seems they are. So i just moved on, this was about 2 years ago. I was just waiting until they drop off after 6 years. But i heard somewhere that these guys can come back after 5 years and start threatening you with court action. I couldn't care less, but i don't want the CCJ and going through another 6 years of rubbish credit. Has anyone had experience of this and am i better off giving them a tiny settlement and just being done with it? Any help or advise would be greatly appreciated.

The following attachment contains guidelines on filing defaults with credit reference agencies. It was published in 2007. guidance_on_defaults.pdf These guidelines have now been superseded by a new set which apparently have been drafted by the credit reference agencies themselves but with approval and apparently "close involvement" of the information Commissioner. high_level_prinicples_document_final.pdf You can spot the difference because the original 2007 version is on information Commissioner headed notepaper and the information Commissioner claims responsibility for it. The more recent 2014 revised version contains merely a "foreword" by the Information Commissioner. Of particular interest is the clear difference in approach to disputed accounts. The 2007 guidance gives very clear directions as the steps to be followed when deciding whether or not to refer a disputed account to the credit reference agency file. The 2014 guidance appears to be completely silent on this matter. Although this important issue has clearly been deliberately excluded from the more recent guidance, you should remember that first of all – this is only guidance. Secondly, the original 2007 guidelines make it clear that the entering of a disputed account on to a credit reference agency file risks breaching the legal requirement of – accuracy. Although the subject of disputed files has been omitted from recent guidance, "accuracy" is still a lawful requirement for all entries placed onto credit files. This means that the steps which the 2007 document advises should be taken, are still relevant and we feel that where there is an account which is subject of a valid dispute – as per the 2007 guidance, that this should not be referred to the CRA's. We appreciate that this places some organisations in great difficulty because it must take a great deal of time and judgement to make the right decisions. However, we are also fully aware that many organisations are really quite cavalier about the status of disputed accounts and will even use the credit reference agency as a stick to beat troublesome customers with. If you feel that you have a marker which has been unlawfully placed on your credit file because you have a valid dispute – such as a mobile phone provider failing to carry out their side of the bargain, then you should read the two guidance documents above – and keep the 2007 version very much in mind. Just because the 2007 version has been revised, it does not mean that it has no validity.

Hi, I know this post is 4 years old but it's the only one I can find with the answer I'm after. Do you have a link or file to the letter before action you wrote for me to pilfer? Cheers Paul

Hi there my experian credit score is 577 and I really could do with sorting this out as soon as I can. Backstory: A few years back, I had far too many cards with way too high credit limits and spent more than I should and could really afford. I managed to get a check on myself and stopped the spending, did some balance transfers etc to try and make things more affordable. I missed the odd payment here and there due to lack of being organised or simply not having enough money in my account that month. Then, out of nowhere, some of the credit card companies raised my interest rate from single figures up to over 30% which then made actual payment of these monthly bills unafordable. I contacted them all individually about my circumstance and they said there is nothing they can do - the interest rate was raised due to me being high risk, even though if I missed a payment, I always paid the following month. Being stubborn, I just stopped paying them and when the phone calls came, I told them I would have been able to pay them if they had helped me/worked with me but 30+% interest was too expensive on over £15k worth of debts, across 4 cards. Onto present day, of the 4 cards, 1 is long paid off, the other 3 I am still paying. Here is the detail: Card 1: it was on MBNA and moved to Britannica Moorgate and I'm paying them £90 a month. Strangely, its showing on Experian as an Active account rather than a default account - credit card - up to date - with a balance of £2503 It says its an account from 2007 with a £90 x 103 month payment schedule but I didn't move to Moorgate in 2007 - that would have been around August 2010 more like but I can't find any more info of exact time I moved to Moorgate. There is nothing at all showing from MBNA on my Experian report Card 2: Capital One - Showing in the 'defaulted account' section with a £2013 balance - account from 2004 but default date is August 2010 - default balance was £6800 at that time Card 3: 1st credit limited - Showing in the 'defaulted account' section with a £877 balance - account from 2000 but default date is March 2013 - default balance was £2727 at that time. I can't understand why its showing as March 2013 as I stopped paying them all at the same time so it should be 2010 surely? I can't remember who the credit card provider was for this one (maybe HSBC) but my debt must have been passed to 1st credit and then they initiated the default from when they took over the debt , rather than when I stopped paying? In summary, my number 1 priority is to fix my credit rating as quickly as possible and would be interesed to know what people think is my best approach of achieving it? I can provide more info if that helps? After recently sellling my car, I’ve got a few thousand in the bank so while I’m not in a position to pay them all off in full, I’m not far away either, maybe £1.5k shy. Thanks for reading and also thanks in advance to anyone who replies d helps guide me towards the right strategy to repair the errors of my past ghosts

Although the information here may in some way apply to my circumstances, I am hopeful that the discussion will prove useful to others. I am attempting to ascertain the rules/law regarding the receipt of offers by a bank (or other financial institution) both before and after a default is registered on an account. So some questions that will hopefully help with the discussion: If a bank is sent an offer from the debtor for monthly payments on a debt that is not in default, with the first payment attached via a stapled cheque made payable to the bank, and the bank removes and cashes the cheque, does the bank agree to the offer? Is there any written rule or law that enables the bank to accept the money provided in an offer of payment (as in 1 above) as a token payment towards the debt but WITHOUT communicating in writing to the bank that it does not accept the terms of the offer? In relation to 2 above, does it make a difference as to whether the account is in default, or to put it another way, does an account in default afford the bank further rights with regards to what it can choose to do with an payment received regardless of what the offeror's intention was? I am intrigued to hear peoples' thoughts on this as I have received various opinions on this from both lay people and qualified solicitors. And finally, I wonder if the same applies in relation to offers of settlement, again with stapled cheque attached, whereby the bank may take the payment for another purpose (e.g. token payment towards debt) rather than as settlement, and in the meantime not communicate refusal of offer.

Hi guys been lurking around on the forums for a couple of days using the search function, not sure if this is correct place to make this post so the debts going off my credit report now are (drum roll....) Lowell Telecommunications supplier £1000+ account started 2006 Defaulted 2011 Default every month since 2015 Rang them once or twice going to submit a SAR request under the DPA ------------ Idem Unsecured Loan £3000+ account started 2008 Defaulted 2011 Defaults shows 2 defaults 2016 Rang once or twice going to send a CCA request ------------- Lowell (think it has been moved to another company) Credit Card account start date end of 2007 Defaulted 2011 Defaults every month since 2015 Going to send a CCA request -------- So i was looking at my credit score and there is some old debts on there, i read about defaults being removed after a certain amount of time but if they are defaulting every month it will never end? I have no problem going to court if need's be These are really old debts, i haven't seen a letter from or heard from any DCA's (that i can remember) I can't see how i have a phone bill of £1000+ (they said it was £800+ airtime call charges!) I am willing to fight my corner at all cost's (whats the worst that can happen a CCJ? i get defaults every month i can't even upgrade my bank account from a child account) After a hard time in my life i was homeless (registered with local council etc years ago) Plus i can't remember having these debts! I don't know if this helps me in anyway Has any one got any advice? My main objective here is to get rid of the default's

Hi there. I have been working hard to get my debts paid off for a few years now. I decided to check my credit report with the CRAs. I have noticed a default from 2011 on an MBNA account. This was previously defaulted in 2006 and the 2011 entry seems to be for around the time the original default would have been due to drop off my file. I only have one payment left to make for around £17 at the beginning of June. My question is should I dispute the 2nd default as surely this shouldn't be allowed. I don't have the original letter of default from 2006 nor do I have my credit report from this time or while the original default was on my report. Thanks in advance. C

So, I was an irresponsible student who racked up some defaults for a small amount of 2500 I am in a position to settle these debts now, but many of them are very close to being statute barred, my main query is, if I was to settle these debt, how long until I would expect to see an improvement in my credit file?