Between 2005-2007 I had around 10 default notices issued for debts totaling £58,000. I am still paying these off on independently negotiated payment plans with each lender and/or their chosen representative. As I am keen to look at the possibilities of a mortgage in the next year or so , it would be good to know what all this means to my credit rating. Are default notices removed six years after issue even if the debt is outstanding? Would a personal credit report clearly show any outstanding defaults or ‘black marks’ against my name or would it simply give me a ‘credit score’ which frankly is of little practical use.

It’s a good question. I am currently on a new course ofanti-depressants and have been referred to a clinical psychologist for weekly daytimemeetings. Being office based is very difficult as just interacting with peopleat times with this condition is near on impossible. Something where I can workflexible hours from home would be possible I guess, at least for the foreseeablefuture.

If you do not take the option of acontract extension at work on the grounds of ill health, where does this standin terms of claiming benefit? Is a doctor’s note declaring you unfit for work (inthis case for an initial four weeks) sufficient or would it be deemed that an individualhad made themselves voluntarily unemployed?

I would be keen to get some advice on a situation that has cropped up at work.In short, I am being asked to phone up a selection of companies pretending to be a private consultant working on behalf of a fictitious Investment Management firm. The idea is to obtain the details of the correct contact at these respective companies so we can then contact them with our own services at a later date. I have been set up with an email address which is registered to a holding company. I am extremely uncomfortable about lying through my teeth whilst also using my name. Where exactly do I stand if I refuse to do this? The matter is further complicated as I am nearing the end of a 12 week probation period.Any thoughts or feedback welcome

I have bought a number of items (three suits, a jumper and a coat) from Zara which have split, ripped and lost buttons after only a few weeks of normal wash and wear. When I complained to Zara, they advised that as the items were over 30 days old, there was no further action I could take.Is this entirely accurate? One would assume that their clothes should be designed to be a little more robust?

I am a permanent employee for atechnology organisation in London. The organisation only pays statutory sickpay. Today I was unable to come to workas I picked up a leg injury at the weekend and needed to rest it. I advisedthat I was willing, able and happy to work from home today, seeing as we havethe requisite remote tools to do so. I was told that as I was unable to come tothe office, it would constitute a sick day and I would therefore not be paid. Is there any recourse against thiskind of action, especially when you are prepared to carry out your duties froman alternate venue? (in this case from home). There are other people in theoffice who quite often work from home for one reason or another, demonstratingthat this modus operandi seems perfectly acceptable at other times. If I worked for an organisation where being in the office was fundamental to performing my role I could understand, but this is not the case here. I would value other people's thoughts.

Thanks again for the response. At risk of pre-empting their response, what if the lender turns round and says they have no documentation relating to these old mortgages? Are they obliged to retain the documentation once the mortgage account is closed?

Also - one of the lenders was Future Mortgages. Does anyone know their contact phone number/address as they appear to have vanished from sight?

Thank you. My mortgages were taken out in 2000, 2003 and 2003. Can I still claim, as I read somewhere that anything before 2005 wasn't valid for investigation?

If you have no idea what the account numbers are (in the case of three old mortgages) can you still apply for an SAR without this information?

I have around 9 loans/credit agreements of which all were taken out before 2006. The majority have now defaulted and are in payment plans with the original creditors or debt collection agencies. I have no paperwork relating to these accounts and no honest recollection of whether they ever included PPI. I also had a Mortgage with Natwest opened in 2000 and closed in 2004. This definitely had PPI, but again I have no paperwork.Given this, how does one make the first steps towards a PPI claim if a) One has no idea if PPI was ever being paid?b) One has no paperwork?Thanks in advance

From the Barclays website You’ll incur a Reserve Usage Fee of £22 for the first five consecutive working days from when you start using your Reserve. If you dip into your reserve fee for just two working days and then go back in the black, are you still charged the £22? The wording is a little vague.

I recently lost my job through illness. I have a loan with natwest, and a current account with natwest. I cancelled the loan direct debit (DD) at the end of January so the February Loan payment wouldn't come out of my account. I have been on JSA for the last two months. Today, Natwest reclaimed the payment and it has gone out of my account, leaving me with nothing. On discussing the matter, they advise that the DD is irrelevant, and they have a right to take the money as the loan and account are linked. I am not sure how exactly, but this seems highly dubious. Do they have a legal right to do this when I have no money coming in except JSA? This is leaving me with nothing to pay bills and buy food with. Any advice appreciated.

What happens if you are currently unemployed (as I am) but start work in say, 3-6 months? Can the bankruptcy be reversed by the courts or creditors insistence, or compensation paid?If you start work they will look at your income and expenditure, if you have a surplus they may take the whole of that surplus for up to 3 years, all reasonable living costs will be allowed This bit interests me. Surely the vast majority of people will find gainful employment within 3 years of being bankrupt, and all will have a 'surplus' of some description which one would usually use for general life expenses such as birthdays, weddings, family visits and so on. This doesnt even include emergencies like repairs, which is where traditional payment plans fall foul under scrutiny. Indeed, many are employed when applying for bankruptcy: their debts are simply too much for them to cover off. In this case, declaring yourself bankrupt and then paying a surplus seems a little pointless, as it puts you right on the brink of finanical hardship again for a long period of time. Surely you should just arrange a payment plan and be done with it (assuming lenders accept such a thing and are tolerant to periods of unemployment) otherwise your are no better off, but with a bankruptcy charge against your name? As a side issue, can you declare yourself bankrupt if you are employed but your outgoings exceed your incomings? Would the court mediate and ask you make other arrangements with creditors first? Thanks for your earlier reply.

I wonder if someone would be able to answer some questions on bankruptcy: (I am currently unemployed, signed off sick by doctor, rent, and have £33K in debt) During What happens with things like gym and mobile phone contracts? Are they automatically dissolved? What happens if you are currently unemployed (as I am) but start work in say, 3-6 months? Can the bankruptcy be reversed by the courts or creditors insistence, or compensation paid? I may have the chance to be a (non paid volunteer) director of a local sports club (LTD). I assume this couldn’t happen if bankruptcy proceedings began? After Are you able to pay for things on direct debit (phone, gym membership, gas bills etc) after bankruptcy, or is it nigh on impossible? At what point are records wiped from your credit history? I have read different accounts, some saying it stays on your file for up to 6 years. Many thanks