Truth is, I don't! I am about to start a claim against this person though small claims court. They INSIST they can prove in court that they sent the money, although they refuse to show me the proof. My worry is that in court they will show proof of sending the money and the court will rule this is the end of their obligation. My argument is that they are responsible for ensuring I am paid in the agreed manner and it is their responsibility to chase Paypal, not mine. I have offered to contact Paypal and look into it, but as they refuse to give me any transaction information or the e-mail address they used, I have no way of tracking the money. They also state that in court they can claim from me, costs for the time spent in court? Is this true? If so, can I do the same? Thanks all.

My address is [email protected]. The buyer refueses to provide their e-mail address or a transaction ID for the payment. Goods were hand delivered just last week.

Just a quick question. I sold some good to a person. Private transaction, arranged by e-mail. I delivered the goods and the buyer paid me there and then by Paypal. After checking my Paypal records I can see that I have never received the money. Assuming the buyer did send the money via Paypal and that something went wrong with the transaction, who is legally responsible for the error? The buyer is basically telling me to take them to court for the payment and that in court they will prove they sent the money. However, of course, I can prove it was not recieved. What, if any, legal obligation does the buyer have to ensure the money reaches my account?

Thanks all for the replies/advice. I too looked into the different people online offering these services and found there websites somewhat lacking in information as to who they are and where they are based, although there are a couple of more 'transparent' companies I have now found. Despite all the advice against this I am going to continue investigating this offer. If for no other reason, at the end this thread may help someone else who finds themselves in my position. I am expecting a full and concise written offer, explaining how this will be made legal and safe, I'll be back then!

I'd be interested in knowing the outcome of this. It is my understanding that domestic use machines (such as those sold by Comet/Currys etc..) are just for that. Domestic use only and do not have a commercial use warranty. The Sale of Goods Act really does not apply here since it states (in very simple terms) an appliance should be fit for purpose - the purpose of this machine is domestic use and the handbook will state this. If it used in a contrary manner then really there is little comeback for the consumer. Probably not what you wanted to hear but I think you will find this is the case. Commercial use - as far as a warranty is concerned - would be installed and used in a commercial premises, regardless of the amount of use.

She wouldn't need to mortgage it, she told me she can arrange with my lender, via a solicitor to take a liability for MY existing mortgage. As for the insurance, again, she wouldn't insure it, she would take liability for paying the freeholder for their business insurance?! I think my course of action is going to be to have her put in writing precisely what her proposal is and detail what safeguards will be in place. I will then take this to my solicitor, my mortgage advisor and an impartial estate agent for their views on it. I agree it sounds very 'suspicious' however I am in a situation where I cannot afford to miss out if this is a genuine opportunity!

Thanks for the replies. This kind of echoes what I thought!? The proposed plan is this. Mrs A want to move into our flat but cannot obtain the relevant mortgage, so she has employed Mrs Buyer to help her. Mrs Buyer will pay us a cash sum (tbc) to leave the property and we exchange contracts for a sale at an agreed price. The cash sum is equal to amount we would have left over by selling the conventional way. Mrs Buyer will then legally assume (via solicitors) all responsibility for the flat. The mortgage, bills, insurance, upkeep, everything. Whilst letting the property to her client Mrs A. During this time, WE will legally own the property but have no legal liability to it. At the end of an agreed period of time, (we are thinking around 2 years) we complete on the sale at the pre-agreed sum and Mrs Buyer then sells it straight on at the current value. The reason for selling in this way means that we sell the property at a price we would not achieve on the open market, Mrs A get the home she wants, Mrs Buyer banks 2 years of equality. It all sounds good, but I cannot see how Mrs Buyer can legally assume full liability to the property when we still own it?!?

Hello. I have had an offer to buy my flat, the buyer wants to buy now but complete in a number of years (2-4). The idea being that in the meantime they can profit through any price rises, and I get the price I need now that I may not achieve on the open market. During the period of time before completion they would assume all legal responsibility for the upkeep and mortgage payments on the flat. Has anyone heard of this before and what risks should I be aware of? This company http://www.guaranteedhomesales.co.uk/how-it-works/ seem to offer exactly the same option. Any advice appreciated!

Hi all. I am being chased by Roxburghe Debt Collections for a supposed outstanding South East Water Bill. The bill they are chasing for dates back to 2004 at a previous address (I am still checking with previous landlords to see if I lived there at this time). To the best of my knowledge I do not owe any money to South East Water. I have never seen a copy of the bill they are refering to. When I did ask for a copy they sent me a made-up bill with headed paper and a badly put together spreadsheet. How do I know if this bill is correct? Whilst I am not opposed to paying a bill if it is correct, why should I pay this company I have never heared of money for a bill I have never seen or been asked to pay? Any thoughts or advice on this greatly appreciated, they are phoning me daily and have now even written to say I have defaulted on an agreed payment plan...when I phoned and asked when I agreed to this plan they couldn't tell me when I agreed to it or how much it is for?! Help!

I bought a house with my girlfriend about 9 months back, I am sure that my conveyancer asked me about this and we were given a standard document to sign that states each parties interest in the property and what should happen in the event of the property being sold. This was done right at the end just before exchanging contracts.

I am the retailer! A customer came to collect goods that they purchased over the phone, and complained that they shouldn't have been allowed to pay be credit card up front as it was illegal?

I have been told it is illegal to pay in full, the balance of goods that are to be ordered in for a customer by a retailer. And that only a partial deposit may be taken in advance of the goods being recieved. Is this true? Whilst it maybe a good idea to only pay a deposit, is there really a law prohibiting the payment even if a customer authorises it?

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They = the shop asked for = the customer This is as I understood it. If anyone could point me to a part of UK law or the sales of goods act that covers it, I would be very grateful! Thanks.

I have to say it seems like a fairly simple request designed to stop other people making changes to your account. Personally I would provide the information and be thankfull they were being so diligant with my account subscription.