Hi My ex and I parted company about 12 months ago quite amicably. I still live in the mortgaged family home with our two kids, the house and mortgage are in my sole name and have never been in his name, we were not married, but lived together for a 10 years. he has not been named on council tax for a year now, but occasionally mail does turn up here and I pass it on to him. He has told me that he has acquired a CCJ and there may be more to follow due to various unsecured debts, taken out while he was living here but none secured against my property. While we were together we purchased a lot of stuff together, TV, fridge, washing machine, dishwasher etc. along with things like Xbox and tablets etc. Most of this he sourced and bought through his ebay, amazon or other online account, often with me giving him the money back. when he left, he said he only needed to take one TV and his laptop and a few other bits, leaving/gifting the rest, furniture etc. for family use, like I say it was amicable and I even helped him out with the deposit on his new place. i have been doing a bit of online reading and I understand that bailiffs can attempt to gain access to my property if they think that goods belonging to my ex are here. Is this correct. Also does the fact that he gave the goods to me before the CCJ make any difference? can he provide me with something in writing that says the goods belong to me, or could the deposit money i gave him be considered payment or settlement in some way? If so how can I demonstrate this. Nothing has happened yet, but I just want to be prepared. Thanks in advance Deb