We do if we re-mortgage with another provider though?

I was of the opinion that we did not have to inform them prior to any sale or disposal, but nobody so far was able to confirm that! I am confident we can re-mortgage with a good deal if we don't have to satisfy that first.

Apologies, my anger got the better of me! Many thanks, that mirrors what I thought. If we re-mortgage it will be for less than 50% of the existing mortgage as we will have funds to pay some of it off, and we have equity in the property worth 4 times the existing mortgage, I just do not want to pay those blood suckers any money!

What does Res K mean? These [Edit] managed to get two debts rolled into one, then managed to get two charges against the property. If I have any way of getting it removed I will.

Thanks, have just checked the paperwork and it says "No disposition of the registered estate to be registered without a certificate signed by the applicant for registration or his conveyoncer that written notice of the disposition was given to Fredrickson International Limited" etc. Does that mean we have to clear it to remortgage or just inform Fredrickson?

Thanks, will check the paperwork. I still feel though that there might be a valid case for IRL, I tried several times to get the bank to freeze charges or stop paying direct debits I knew would incur charges but they ignored me.

We have a shortfall on the mortgage, so we will need to re-mortgage at the end of the term. I think another lender will not be possible with the restriction in place.

In 2000 I changed jobs, and in 2001 I was struggling financially. My bank (LLoyds TSB) offered me a credit card, loan and overdraft. In short over a period of time I ran up an overdraft of £6000, defaulted on the loan and ran the credit card to max. I buried my head in the sand and they obtained a CCJ for a total of £16k, which was the loan, overdraft and charges. They also obtained a second CCJ for the credit card, but I negotiated and paid this back over 6 years. They then obtained a charge (restriction ) on the family home which is jointly owned by me and my wife (the debts are all in my name), despite me explaining I was not the sole owner. Since then I have not paid a penny and the debt has been waiting for the house to be sold (it wont be we will die here!) to be satisfied. I have recently complained to the FOS about the tactics of Lloyds/TSB (rolling two debts into one, excessive charges when asked to freeze etc) but they will not look at it as it is over 6 years old. I really want to get the restriction lifted so we can settle the mortgage and be clear, could I claim irresponsible lending?