I have called them back and informed them of my position and that without doubt the debt is statute barred, they are going to go back to the lender and ask them about it. I told her that I wouldn't entertain any further correspondence or phone calls without, proof of the debt in the for of a signed and dated original credit agreement and proof of payments received by me, not someone else, in the last 5 years. She wasn't happy. Thanks folks

The last payment before they spoofed my mum would have been approx. 2003, that's also the last contact I had with them.

See that's my thoughts on it, but sometimes there can be wee obscure rules that means she might be right. I'm just wanting to be sure before I phone them back or write to them.

Hi, I have a weird Statute of limitations question: I live in Scotland, had a letter today from Buchanan Clark and Wells about a loan I took out in 1999 and defaulted on. I haven't heard anything about this loan since around 2003. I told them this was statute barred under the statute of limitations, however, they have said a payment was made in 2010. Now this was definitely not made by me. The address for the debt on the letter was my mums address, so I phoned her and she paid someone who came to the door £10 a month for a few months thinking it was something to do with my dad (same name) BCW are stating that because of this the Statute doesn't apply, she should know, she's a lawyer. I think they are wrong though as there has been no contact or payment from me. does anyone know where I stand on this? Thank you in advance.