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aidoo326

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About aidoo326

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  1. But isn't the managing agent free and clear of any professional body sanction as the reduction to one lease was made by the freeholder and not the managing agent?
  2. The leaseholder pays £150 per annum whilst the rest of us pay £1775 per annum. The reduction was made by a lease variation - agreed with the freeholder.
  3. It annoys me quite royally. I am royally ticked off that this jammy article (whose flat is no smaller than any of the others) is sitting pretty and paying £150 per annum whilst the rest of us are paying £1775 per annum and what's more this discount is set for the remainder of the jammy article's lease term - which is 990 years! All the other leaseholders know about it already as I have told them. The managing agent also knows that I know and that all the other leaseholders know. Somehow I cannot see the jammy beggar and the freeholder being shamed into action - especially when there is
  4. I have now had a chance to read the jammy beggar's lease and (as the managing agent said) it does state that this person's service charge percentage is only 0.6%. This was done by deed of variation in early 2015. I have also searched for but cannot find any connection between the jammy beggar and the freeholder. I am guessing that the jammy beggar might have paid a premium to the freeholder for the deed of variation? At any event the jammy beggar has achieved a service charge discount of c. £1600 per annum (based on present charges) for the rest of his lease term. This is 990 years! I have jus
  5. I already have the accounts for the development. The accounts however do not go into detail about how much each individual leaseholder pays. They just give overall totals for each heading of service charge expense. I will see what more I can unearth over the next few days and attempt to get a copy of the jammy beggar's lease. In the meantime, I would appreciate some advice on whether there is anything that can be done to force the freeholder into levelling the playing field if it turns out to be true that one leaseholder's service charge contribution is only 0.6% when the rest of us are contri
  6. No, is the short answer but I did download the flat owner's title register from Land Registry and it states that there was deed of variation entered on his title in early 2015 - which appears to tie in with the time-frame that the managing agent gave for the change occurring.
  7. At the time I bought the flat the leases must have been defective. During my conveyancing neither my solicitor nor I thought to delve into the remaining 14x leases to check whether the service charge percentages overall added up to more than or less than 100% though. It was only after having owned the flat for a handful of years (and speaking with the neighbours) that I realised that all the flat owners have exactly the same service charge percentage that I have (7.1%) - the jammy beggar with the 0.6% service charge contribution being the exception .... Is collecting more than 100%
  8. The managing agent swears blind that he has never collected any more than 100% of the service charge costs and he challenged me to check my historic billing to prove this. I did so and I must admit that I have never previously been charged more than 6.6666% of the total service charge. It is only in the last couple of years (since the sneaky lease variation with one flat owner) that my contribution has reverted to 7.1% of the total service charge - as stated in my lease. The difference between 7.1% and 6.6666% may not sound very significant but when you consider the fact that we are paying £17
  9. I asked the managing agent the very same question and their response was that (at the freeholder's suggestion) they applied common sense and rounded down the service charge percentages for all 15 flats - so instead of 7.1% each, they each paid an equal share of the total cost - e.g 6.6666%. This way they managed to only ever collect only 100% of the service charge costs. This was all done behind the scenes though and none of us were sent notices of the rounding down. When the sneaky flat holder came up with his suggestion to the landlord of varying his own service charge percentage to 0.6% - t
  10. In our leases our service charge percentages are stated as a fixed amount - e.g. 7.1%. Yes, there is a clause allowing the service charge distribution to be altered (if it is considered to be in the interests of good estate management). The lease clearly states though that the decision to do the alteration rests with the management company - which in this case means the freeholder - since the managing agent is instructed by him. Is there some legal process by which the freeholder could be forced to 'level the playing field' and make all 15 flats pay the same service charge percentag
  11. I own a long leasehold flat in a building containing 15 flats. My lease (and the lease of 13 other flat owners) states that we are each responsible for 7.1% of the service charge costs. We queried with our managing agent whether this made our leases defective since 15 x 7.1% would come to 106.5% and we are aware that if the total service charges collected at a development is greater than or less than 100%, this renders the leases defective. To our surprise, our managing agent informed us that one flat owner had noticed this anomaly a few years ago and had approached the freeholder to agree a l
  12. The court acknowledges that I have already served and filed a certificate of service in respect of the ICO but they are now ordering me to file a statement of amount due including any costs and interest. I am not sure what form this should take and I would be grateful if anyone could advise on whether a letter citing the amount due together with a statement of truth is sufficient or whether it is a spreadsheet and breakdown that is required ...
  13. Regarding the ICO, I received a general form of judgment or order in the post a couple of days ago. I should explain that I have already served and filed a certificate of service in relation to the ICO. The order received a couple of days ago seems to require me to 'file a statement of the amount due under the judgment or order including any costs and interest'. What form does this normally take? Is a letter together with a statement of truth sufficient or do I have to provide some kind of spreadsheet and breakdown? A redacted copy of the order is attached to post #41
  14. Regarding the same claim, I received this redacted general form of judgment or order in the post today. I should explain that I have already served and filed a certificate of service in relation to the interim charging order. The order received today seems to require me to 'file a statement of the amount due under the judgment or order including any costs and interest'. What form should this take? Is a letter together with a statement of truth sufficient or do I have to provide some kind of spreadsheet and breakdown? General form of judgment or order dated 31-01-2017.pdf
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