The Insurance company are called Assurant Solutions. Have you come across them before?

Thanks for this. When i spoke to the insurance company they said that i would have to contact the broker direct as it was nothing to do with them, which sort of makes sense.

Hi, the main mortgage is now with Paratus, formally GMAC, however this policy was taken out in 2002 and we remortgaged again in 2004/2005. An IFA from another forum said that we wont be able to claim it back because it was taken out pre regulation in 2005. I still want to have a go but i don't know where to start really, apart from phoning the chap himself up and asking him, He's just going to deny miss-selling it anyway!

Hi Slick. Another conversation had with the revenue today and even more confused now. They have also sent a cheque to the OR for £1600 for the tax period of 2009/2010. Like you say, its probably better that we get a complete breakdown of how they have worked it out.

Hi, No i'm sure we didn't have to have it. I have never liked anything like PPI, i just didn't get the expense of paying for something like PPI. I would have cancelled i years ago if i had known.

Hi all, To cut a long story short, ive just found out this morning that my wife and i have been paying PPI for 11 years. We have been paying £58pm for quite a while. The point is the broker we used is a very small independent broker, and i mean, very small, about 5 members of staff. I have never been interested in taking out PPI in any form so i know i wouldn't have agreed to pay for this. I actually thought the amount was for buildings and contents insurance. The thing is, what do i do now? I have cancelled the policy and was told by the lady over the phone to deal with the broker direct, but i wouldn't know what steps to take. What is the success likely to be as i probably haven't got any of the original paperwork anymore. Any feedback/help would be great. For those who may feel that i would have known that this was PPI given the time we have had it i would like to say that i categorically didn't. We were flooded twice in 2002 and because we wouldn't have been able to get insurance elsewhere i wouldn't cancel it. In fact we fell behind two months once and i even paid the arrears because i was i thought it was buildings/contents insurance. I have posted this on another forum and the feedback from one professional is that i haven't got a leg to stand on. Thanks in advance

Hi again, My wife dug out the original letter that the cheque came with and at the top it clearly states the refund is based on the tax year of 2011/2012! So in my eyes they have made a mistake!

Thank you slick, Yes it is an Income Payment Agreement. I'm sorry i should have been more specific. I think you may be right and that i should ask for a complete breakdown. I'm a debt advisor and i believe that they have made a mistake if they have deducted this amount from the year 2009/2010, as my wife never paid any of her tax to the Official Receiver's. She should have done, but after many phone conversations with Moonbeaver (The OR's appointed IPA collection solicitors) she gave up calling them. The point is that she still paid her income tax via PAYE. The tax that she was paying should have been paid directly to Moonbeaver. The last payment to them would have been March 2010, the end of the financial tax year. I'm suspicious because they seem to have completely wiped out her rebate based on that one financial year, and i'm finding hard to believe that all the money due to her just happens to come from that very year.

Hi I'm new here and was wondering if any of you can spread any light on this, but to say i'm a little perplexed about this is an understatement. My wife declared herself bankrupt on 23rd April 2009. Although she paid into an IPA for three years her tax code never changed so she never paid any of her tax into the IPA. She was employed all of this time by the way. At the beginning of November she received a rebate of just over £2000, however for some reason the cheque was made payable in her former married name. We have been married for 15 years so it seemed very odd. She phoned the revenue up and told them they had sent the cheque in the wrong name and they said that they could see on the system that her name was changed back to her former married name 6 months prior to her calling. They informed her to send the cheque back and they would send out a new one. To cut a long story short nothing happened and after various phone calls to them its taken until now for them to change her name back. However, on one occasion she had a conversation with the person who was dealing with her case who informed her that it would have to be recalculated because of her bankruptcy. At this point i started to think that she wouldn't get much money back, if any at all. This morning she received a letter form the revenue stating that they have recalculated her tax and in fact she owes them £758.87! Now, in my mind she's already paid her tax so the revenue would owe the money to the OR for that financial year not my wife because it's already been taken from her, so why would she owe them? The letter states that the calculation has been based on the tax year of 2009/2010, so i'm finding it difficult to believe that all of the amount she was previously informed she was owed is be based on the year she was in Bankruptcy. Ive also just dug out some earlier letters from the revenue, and on there are other letters that also have a calculation based on the tax year of 2011-12. Yet the letter we received today is saying that the new calculation is from 2009/2010! I'm just not sure if they are either taking the micky, or they have got it wrong.... again!! Thanks in advance