hello I am new to your forum and i hope this is the right forum for my question and i hope i ll get some advice.. OK here we go i hope you can make some sense out of my question as I'm not to good at writing.. 3 years ago my wife divorced me after she discovered for a third time that i was gambling yet again ,she had enough as in the past i gambled lot of money over 5 years of gambling spend all my savings wages and any money that i got at hand, we had to re mortgage and she gave me 15000 of her own savings and 15000 that we had to re mortgage, the final straw was this time as i told her that the land that we had in Greece given by my parents was sold and i gambled all the money so she divorced me as she could no forgive me or trust me ever again when it came to finalize the finances she asked that we sell the house and she should receive all the proceeds of the sale of our property, ( 100.000) . and i should receive nothing as i already had my fair share,as she already has given me 15000 and 15000 that we had re mortgage ~+ 14000 that i received for the sale of the land and also she always paid more into the house than i did,, so i agreed to it because i knew she was right and if i was to argue about her demands i had to go to court and spend money that i dint have so i agreed signed a consent order which it went to court and was approved and signed by the court,, she later purchased another smaller house with a small mortgage and lives there ever since our divorce. when we divorced i had debts of 48000 which i still have and i currently have an Iva but i think soon my Iva could fail and ll be made bankrupt my question is if i do go bankrupt will the‘official receiver’ go after the property my ex wife has now and demand more money if they think i dint get a fair share or can her property or the consent order be challenged i hope you can make sense out of my question any advice will be very much appreciated many thanks to all