It has "advance against income" next to account type.

Thanks for your response. My worry is, if I do not make a payment and attempt to wait it out, can the creditor then apply for a CCJ with a few months remaining on the default and that will then show for another 6 years. Also, the creditors do not have my current address but for fear of them registering a CCJ and missing court papers, would I be best updating them with my new address or would I just create more problems for myself?

Thank you for your reply; 1. - Lenders: Myjar - Amounts: £482 - When Taken: 26/09/2011 - With OC 2. - Lenders: Payday UK - Amounts: £375 - When Taken: 10/11/2011 - With OC 3. - Lenders: PRA Group - Amounts: £908 - When Taken: 10/11/2011 - With DCA

Hi, I am currently in the process of beginning to tackle my debts and clearing up my credit file, with the end goal of getting a mortgage, admittedly in a good few years! I have a number of defaults from payday loans which are due to fall of my credit file in 2-3 years. However, I have been considering entering a DMP or TDP with a debt charity. However I am unsure if this would just mean the debts would be visible on my credit file for longer. If I enter a arrangement to pay with any of the creditors that have registered a default, will that just start the 6 year countdown again. So instead of falling of in 2 years, will it then mark as AP for a further 6 years from the date I entered the arrangement. The same with satisfied, or settled defaults, will it be 6 years from the date of being satisfied. Basically, by agreeing to repay the debts am I going to have a black mark on my credit file for longer than if I just wait for them to fall off? Any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance.

Thank you all for the replies. I'll gather all the information and post back. Thanks again.

Hi, I would really appreciate some advice regarding debt collection fees. I had an original debt with council tax for the amount of £107.80 which got passed on to Jabobs debt collectors. The amount they are now claiming is £417.15 which is made up of the original debt, a £75 compliance stage fee and £235 for attending the premises. Is this all legal? Like I say any advice would really be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

Thanks for the fast reply renegadeimp. I received a Default Notice on 11th October 2011. A default was registered 22 days later on 2nd November 2011. The default relates to non-payments, the first of which being for May 2011. Does that mean that the default should have been registered before or during October, and can they register a default just 22 days after sending the notice?

Hi, Does anyone know how long after a creditor send a Default Notice do they have to wait before they can register the Default with the CRA's? Thanks.

Hi, In September 2009 I opened a Natwest Student Account with a £1400 interest free overdraft. I stayed within my authorized overdraft being careful never to go over it. They started requesting I repay the whole overdraft as I was not using the account. On the 3rd December 2010 Natwest sent me a default notice in accordance with the requirements on the CCA. The account was registered as defaulted almost seven months later with the default date on Experian showing as 30/06/2011. However a month before the default date, on the 05/05/2011, I set up a payment schedule with Wescott who were then dealing with the debt and made a £100 payment which is reflected on the credit file. The default was registered the next month anyway. Does anyone know if the default was correctly registered?

Just to let you know i have just had another automated reply,this time with ref: WRT135 - CAG [#11360787]‏.

Hi Lee, Thank you for replying, the reference number is WRT135 - CAG [#11360732]‏.

Also, does anyone have any input on this… I have just been reading through OFCOM’s Guidance on Unfair Terms in Contracts for Communications Services. In particular the part on Early Termination Charges, and the Fairness Test on ETC’s at pages 137 onward; This seems fair enough, Vodafone can recover charges that would have put it in a position had I performed my contractual obligations and no more for the entire term. However, it is following that I would think makes the charge unfair. So Vodafone should have made a pre-estimate of the costs it saved from not having to perform the contract and deduct them from the early termination charge. I received a £526 early termination charge. It was a 24 month contract, from January 2011 to January 2013. The contract was cancelled in September 2011 with £241 in unpaid invoices. The contract therefore had 15 months to run. The line rental was £34.16. So if I has performed the entire contract and nothing more that would have been equal to 15 months line rental at £34.16 which is £512.40. Vodafone, according to the guidance, should have deducted the costs it saved from not having to perform its side of the contract for 15 months from this total of £512.40. They have not done this and instead charged £526 which places them in a better position had than if I had performed my contractual obligations and no more, which is against the guidance.

I can't recall though i think it think it may have been online through phones4u but i can not find any emails or documents to verify this. The closest thing i have to a copy of agreement is the vodafone letter they ask to consider a copy of the contract, which states the mobile number, price plan, line rental and contract term, that is it. If they want me to consider that letter the contract, which is what they say, and the 'contract' fails to mention any terms and conditions or termination fees, is the termination charge still valid?

Thank you for your reply sequenci. Is it right that i am charged for line rental for the entire contract period even though i did not get to use the phone for the entire contract. My point is that if i were to pay that i am effectively paying for one and a half years worth of phone usage i never got to use. I understand this is probably highlighted in in my terms and conditions but i do not even have them to look over. I contacted Vodafone and they simply referred me to my point of sale for a copy of the agreement, which i do not have. They also sent me a simple letter in which they request "you consider this letter as the copy of your Vodafone contract..." The letter makes no reference to any terms and conditions at all let alone any termination fees.

Hi, I have a default registered on my credit from Vodafone for £768. I am about to attempt negotiate some sort of payment or payment plan. However, before i do i would just like to see if someone has any advice on whether it is legal that the amount is so high and what they would recommend i do in this situation. The current balance is made up of: £51.93 which was due for payment on 13/05/11 £53.18 which was due for payment on 15/06/11 £46.41 which was due for payment on 14/07/11 £45.87 which was due for payment on 15/08/11 £44.38 which is due for payment on 14/09/11 These invoices total around £240 and the rest i assume is a early termination charge which must be around £525. The mobile phone was restricted on 8th July 2011. Any help of advice would be appreciated. Thank you.