Thank you so much for your thorough reply. I'm trying to work out the simplest way to deal with this. I don't really want to have to fight things through the courts if it does come to that, and I"m trying to work out if I have a cooling off period at all. I wonder if you can tell me. I viewed the car in person and took it for a test drive. But I then went away and eventually called the dealership back to arrange to buy the car. I agreed to buy the car and paid £500 deposit to secure the car over the phone. I then went into the dealership and completed the purchase in person when I collected the car. Do I therefore have the legal right to a 14 day cooling off period as I was a telephone purchase for at least part of the price? Or does this only apply to a purchase completed over the phone or online? Thanks

I just picked up a new (to me) 2nd hand car yesterday and there appears to be a fault with the heating system. Its only 2 years old. My last car was only 3 years old when I bought it and also had a fault when we got it home that I let the dealer fix, but it was never right and we've had huge costs of repairs over the last 2 years on it that have resulted in our getting rid of it. We bought such a new car this time because we wanted one that would be super reliable and now I've found this fault I'm spooked I'm really wanting to take the car back for a refund. I've got it in my head that perhaps the reason the first owners got rid if it after only 2 years was because it didn't work well. What I want to know is whether a heating fault would constitute a reason to refuse the car within the first 30 days? Can anyone help? I'm finding the internet a bit contradictory with some sites such as the CAB saying any fault within the first 30 days would be reason to refuse the car, whilst other saying it has to be a major fault and you'd still potentially have to fight for a refund through the courts.

Hi, not sure if this is quite the right forum, but seemed the best fit. Not sure if anyone can help with this. I am a landlord and I own a flat that is within a CPZ in London. The front yard of the flat is paved and we use it for parking. Most of the time it is empty as nobody living in the building has a car. We've had problems over the years with people parking in the yard, but we put up a sign a couple of years ago and it seemed to have stopped. Anyway, I had a plumber going up there to do some work today who needed to park in the yard (as I am a landlord and not resident I am unable to get any kind of parking permit for the CPZ so this is the only parking available to us), who has found that there is a car parked in the yard blocking both spaces. Consequently he has had to leave the property and has been unable to do any work there today. This will cost me circa £200 for his wasted time. With the help of the residents I have found out that the car belongs to one of the next door neighbours. The resident did me a favour and went round and knocked on their door (I don't live locally). She has said the car belongs to her husband who is out at work and it cannot be moved until tonight, so no chance of the plumber working there today. I tried calling the police but they have said it is a civil matter. I cannot roll the car as we don't have a dropped curb (this isn't an official drive, just a flat front yard that can be accessed by driving up the curb) and there are other cars parked in the way. There is no value to me in letting down their tyres as this will make it more difficult for them to move the car, and I need access again tomorrow for the plumber. So, is there anything I can do to recoup the costs this has incurred to me? Can I take them to court for the plumbers fee for the day?