Where do I stand if I tell my employer that my entitlement should have been 19 days and not 15? I can see him not giving me the extra 4 days and threatening to get rid of me.

I've emailed citizens advice bureau to check over the calculations. I see your point though in the example of Debs working week.

I still dont understand why it would be ok for them to deduct 1 day but only pay for half a day.

Yes I entered 4.5 days. Are you sure I should be getting 18.8 days? I may work 6 days a week but isn't 4.5 days the correct figure to use?

Mon: 0.5 Tue: 0.5 Wed: 1 Thur: 0.5 Fri: 1 Sat 1 I started work 30th April. The leave year runs from Jan - Dec so 15 days is correct. The gov.uk site also calculated 15 days. I'm not worried about the entitlement. Its the deduction that I don't understand.

I want to check if my employer has correctly applied my leave entitlement. He calculated my pro-rata entitlement to be 15 days. Which is what I expected. I work 36 hours per week with Mon, Tue and Thur being half-days. If Monday was a bank holiday, Is it correct for my employer to deduct 1 day from my entitlement even though I only work 0.5 days on Mondays?...I wouldn't be complaining if they actually paid me for a full day, but I still only got paid for 0.5 days. Unless I'm mistaken, it just doesn't seem right. Can anyone help confirm?

Yes I have a previous letter from the mortgage provider stating 'we are happy to limit in respect of this mortgage shortfall to your personal liability to £6000'. I should have stated the full text in the letter from the debt collection agency. The beginning of the letter states: 'Unfortunatley we are unable to accept the offer made and would expect a payment in the region of £2000 lump sum as full and final settlement, or monthly installments capped to £3500 subject to review'. And then it mentions the bit about liability as I have stated at the start of this thread: '"Please note the balance shown of £6000 does not take into account any Full and final or limited liability agreements. A balance under any agreement made is available upon request".'

My ex wife and I owned a house which was reposesed during the divorce. This resulted in a mortgage shortfall of around 13k. I managed to talk the lender into reducing my liability to 50% of the balance since the property was jointly owned. When I asked about how to go about paying it off, they wrote to me and said that they use a debt collection agency for this. About 6 -9 months passed and finally the debt collection agency wrote to me asking for 6,500. I made an offer to give them £1450.00. They wrote to me today and said they would accept no less than £2,000 by lump sum or monthly payments capped at £3,500. Is it worth re-negotiating and trying to bring them down to around £1,700? Or will they stick to £2000? Secondly, in the letter there is a paragraph which I don't understand. It says: "Please note the balance shown of £6000 does not take into account any full and final or limited liability agreements. A balance under any agreement made is available upon request". Please can someone explain in laymans terms what this means.