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  1. thanks for the reply rebel11, but is this the only way to do it? I just feel that I shouldn't be paying them £10 for information they could easily access to resolve this issue. If it's the only way then I suppose I'll have to go down that route, but to be honest, the money is becoming less of an issue, the shoddy customer service is becomming the more pressing and irritating matter. Will this data contain date, times and content of the call I made to them?
  2. This is my first post, so please, bear with me. I've been an Orange customer since they first started and currently have 3 phones on pay-monthly contracts with them (mine, my wifes and my sons). When my sons came up for renewal it was automatically put on to EE. He has an iPhone 4s which he got over a year ago on a 24 month contract. After a couple of months we noticed he was getting billed £5.99 for a 1gig 4g bundle. We queried it and it was explained how it had been requested and applied. My son agreed that he'd done it, so we thought no more of it. These charges stopped for a while, but then mysteriously reappeared on the bills. I contacted EE and they said they'd been requested, but when I asked my son he said he hadn't requested them. Now, I'm not daft, I know he could have been telling porkies, so I took it on the chin. However, the next bill came in and the charges were there again. And here is where I stand now; I have spoken to more than 15 people in EE's laughably titled 'customer care'. I've been promised a call back on 5 separate occasions, none of which I've received (including the one I'm currently waiting for), although technically that's not true. I gave EE my work mobile number and my personal mobile number as contacts. I was making tea one evening and my work phone (which was right next to me) rang once then stopped, so I didn't even have a chance to pick it up, never mind answer it. When I checked the missed calls number it was from EE. I checked my personal phone and it had a missed call as well. They'd rung my personal number and when it started to ring they'd hung up so quickly that the ring tone hadn't even had time to kick in!! But, as far as their records are concerned the phone rang, so it shows that they tried to contact me. I have spent well in excess of 4 hours on the phone trying to find out why I've been charged for something I haven't requested, and basically they keep saying that because I've been charged for it then I must have requested it. My argument is that we haven't requested it, but can't prove it. But EE can't provide me with any evidence that it was requested. No receipts, no data logs, no info what-so-ever. They are adamant that their systems are perfect and can't make this kind of mistake, and one has accused my son of telling lies. I'm at the end of my tether! I get no calls back, no-one will escalate the problem to a higher manager, and most of all I can't find any way to prove we didn't request the data bundles. Everything is weighted in EE's favour. If THEY say we did it, then THEY are right. That's it. Please, any advice would be greatly appreciated as this has been dragging on now for nearly 3 months!
  3. Thanks for the swift reply. I have no problem with taking the time off as holidays, however the business i keen to get me back asap as I am a qualified assessor and they have people who need assessing before the end of the year. They aren't forcing me to come back, but let's just say they would be extremely happy for me to get back to work. Also, the business is very much governed by the seasons and weather, and is coming into it's most busy period when it needs as many peope available as possible. I guess what I'm asking is; if the business wants me to return to work asap, do they have the right to decline any holidays I request. And if I do return to work, is it reasonable to request that any holidays I haven't used are either carried over or bought back (I realise I will loose some, but something is better than nothing).
  4. Firstly, apologies if I've posted this in the wrong forum, and secondly I'm sorry if this has already been covered but I couldn't find a definitive answer when searching. Background; I work for a very large UK company and have been on the sick since August 2010. I have had an operation on my knee and am currently undergoing physio in order to return to work asap (end Nov/beginning Dec). My holiday entitlement begins on the 1st of my birth month every year, and as my birthday is in January I am due to get my new entitlement on the 1st Jan 2011. My Problems; As I have been on the sick I still have approx 3 weeks of my holiday allocation remaining for this year, but only have approx 4 weeks left in which to use them. I have been told I can carry 1 week over to next year, which is fine. I have asked if I can sell 1 week back so I don't loose it, however a high manager has told me I can't sell anything back as I've been on long term sick (more than 20 days) and will loose this time/money. According to the manager it is because of EU Legislation. It has been suggested that I use the time as holidays for recuperation after my operation, in other words; sign off from being sick and go straight into holidays. I'm sure that this isn't allowed and will also give a false representation of people on the sick in the company statistics. So, my questions are 1. am I entitled to time off? 2. am I entitled to sell my holidays back? 3. does EU Legislation state anything regarding this type of situation, and if so, where can I get a copy? 4. is the manager right to suggest I take the time off for post-op recuperation? Any advice would be greatly received. Many thanks, Steve.
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