Thanks both. I will definitely cca the larger ones but as i have the funds (which i dont need repay to family as to be honest its only repaying what i lent them many many years ago before my own hardships set in) I want get rid of the Arrow debt. Are you able clarify whether makes a difference if settle in full or partial. Thanks

Cabot £2600 account opened June 2004 originally Northern Rock loan of £4k Cabot £1,200 account opened Feb 1995 with Halifax. This was closing overdraft when left in 2010 £800 was Santander (via DFS which I originally stated sorry) Think I will CCA these as +1k but I prefer to settle with Arrow since I have access to funds to do it. Just depends on go with £600 partial settlement or the full £800

HI I didn't, as it originally being a DFS loan, I do have the paperwork myself and don't think I'd get much from requesting one. I accept the debt and I don't want to try avoid my debt, just settle it to my best detriment. However, if paying an extra £200 has absolutely no effect on the debt status then I see no reason to waste my relatives money. I thought settling in full would enable it be shown as 'Settled' and effectively be same as if I'd never defaulted or 6yrs had passed.

Hi, thanks for quick reply. So, even if I pay in full my credit history will show it as defaulted and not settled? It The account I can settle is with Arrow Global but as I understand they outsource everything it is held by NCO RMA Resolve. My 3 creditors: Cabot £2,600 defaulted July 2011 Cabot £1,200 defaulted Oct 2010 Arrow £800 defaulted Jan 2014 The debt I can settle in full is the last, Arrow at £800. This information is taken as of an hour ago after registering with Equifax so is very much up to date. I do not understand the Arrow default date as this is an old DFS loan that they bought back in 2010 / 2011 so I do not understand why the default date is not listed as such either. I certainly defaulted on it a long time ago. Considering this, if 6 yrs that puts it to 2020 before dropping off but if as per opening sentence it remains anyway as defaulted then I have no inclination to settle at £800 instead of £600. Would greatly welcome clarification. Maybe another thread required (please set me straight if so) but my Equifax profile on those accounts shows no payments on the accounts via DMP. It's simply shown as defaulted and the monthly payments are shown empty. That is very misleading as small payments are being made to them via DMP. Should I be querying that? Thanks again

Hi, been in a DMP for circa 4yrs+ now so my original defaults I guess were registered at the time I started to default which is probably circa 5yrs ago. I have opportunity to clear one of my creditor debts (£800) and contacted them hoping for a good percentage but they would not go below 75% settlement (ie offered me 25% off) . I had hoped for 50% as they had offered me that much back in 2013 but now say my account rules have changed because I am in regular DMP payments. I have been offered the full amount by a family member but to be honest as my credit rating is shot anyway I am unsure what actual benefit paying the full amount now is. Would it be £200 down drain when I could either not take it off my family or put it towards another creditor amount. Will paying the full amount remove the default - can I make that a term of full settlement? I was told that a default is only on my file for 6yrs but is that from the time it was registered or from the time it is settled either regardless of in part full. Seems stupid to 'waste' £200 if indeed it has no affect on my default listing / ratings at all. A quick reply would be very much appreciated as I want to finalise this settlement this month, July, if possible. Many thanks

Hi, from my last post you can see that I have negotiated a Full and final payment with a creditor. I know it's best if the cheque payment sent is from a 3rd party but the accompanying letter, does it have to come from my 3rd party or can it be from me? (I would prefer not to tell my friend what its for although I know they can always check their statement and follow it through) Do I need annotate on the cheque that it is a Full & Final payment or just reference the cheque in the letter? May sound a silly question but I dont want to make an assumption only to be sued for balance afterwards! Many Thanks

Hi, I was going to write back to them but they contacted me via phone (I didn't know who it was when answering) but I explained I would be putting in writing my refusal to proceed given content of their letter. They agreed to send me email as written confirmation as what will happen next and be agreed. See below. Q1. Will this email suffice - it has the company details and email disclosure etc so I think okay. Q2. I thought a 'p' flag of partially settled was just as bad as the default itself and will still adversely affect the rating. I was advised on the forum before that I could insist on a 'settled' status? Am I wrong or is it a matter of plugging away and they can mark as settled if they actually choose to? REDUCED SETTLEMENT OFFER We can confirm that our client will accept £xxxxx as a full and final payment with regards to the above debt. Please note that this is a Time Barred offer. Please note that upon receipt of the settlement payment, we will issue a letter of satisfaction advising the account has been 'partially settled' and that you will not be contacted by anyone else in the future with regards to the remaining balance. Also upon receipt of payment our client will make the relevant amendments to your credit file and the default will then be removed and the account will show as 'partially settled'. The only way the account would show on your credit file as 'settled' is if the account is paid in full. The letter of satisfaction which we send to you upon receipt of payment would be sufficient to amend your own credit file by simply sending a copy of the letter to any of the three main credit reference agencies: 1. Experian 2. Equifax 3. Call Credit Our client cannot change the default to 'settled' if it is only partially paid as this would falsify your credit file.

Hi, I'm gonna have to start writing my reply so should I request they reword their letter or leave it alone. ? If I ask to re-word, am I correct with the wording I have requested in my original letter? Thanks

Hi, it was a 10yr loan taken out in 2004 so all thats owing now is really interest. Been through all the normal stuff of advising going into DMP and NRock sent the usual default notices etc. Funnily enough it was all going ok in DMP etc it was only when I offered a Full & Final they notified they'd be pasing to collection agency etc. So far paperwork fron both sides seems above board but as you say I'm not going to pay anything as they've given no written acceptance of conditions - or even acknowledged them come to that.

Hi, attached is a letter I have received from Mackenzie Hall whom are dealing with my Northern Rock loan now that I'm in a DMP. It took 3 tries to get them to this stage but it is about a 30% settlement which is not as good as hoped but ok since amount is not huge. However, their reply deliberately does not mention anything regards the written conditions I specified regards being chased further and the amendment of any credit agency reference. They're trying to scare me with time limited warning but I am not fussed by that as what is their alternative - 40odd years of £1pcm!. However, should I write back and insist they put agreement to conditions in writing? The written conditions of payment I made in my offer letter were: "This offer is made on the clear understanding that, if accepted, neither you or any associate company will take any other action to enforce or pursue this debt in any way whatsoever and that I will be released from any liability. It is also required that, if accepted, you will mark any entry on a credit reference agency file relating to the above account as "satisfied in full" " Via telephone the guy insisted any reference would be amended but only to say 'settled' and that they could not amend it to say "satisfied in full" since it will not of been. Advice please as to how to respond. With many thanks in advance mac Nrock F&F.pdf

wondering if I should split my thread into credit card and loan as getting confusing. To clarify on the Credit Card side of things: I sent letter dated 8 March requesting a copy of the CCA. I inadvertently, due to my own mix up sent a letter dated 15 March with a F&F offer. I heard noting back from either. I sent a chaser letter regards the F&F on 02 May. Again I received nothing in reply. Then early June I receive a letter dated 31st May stating a Default Notice Served and if we are having difficulty paying then to contact them! They like to send from any numerous PO box addresses so you never know to whom you’re writing or if they talk to each other internally. Surely it all goes against same computer account! I replied on June 10 stating I cannot make any extra payments except the token payments I already am via the DMP (& enclosed token payment with letter too ). I get letter from Lloyds dated 16th June requesting an IE completion within 14 days. I get letter dated 29 June from SCM Solicitors demanding full payment on behalf of Lloyds. I then sent letter dated 30th June disputing the default since they had not complied with my CCA request, not even bothered to respond to it. I stated they are now in breach of their Section 78 duties & gave them 7 days to reply which they have not done. What should I do regards their completely ignoring my CCA request and the default served after it? Should I also fill in the IE sheet? Apologies of these posts are long but I thought to get best advice you need all possible info. Thanks

Hi My wife has now received the attached letter from GBP solicitors acting on behalf of Iqor to whom Lloyds passed on her debt to collect. All Iqors letters say Lloyds have passed the debt to be collected. I (I do the paperwork in her name) have already explained to Iqor that Lloyds were being paid via a DMP with Payplan. The current amount is a small token sum each month but I’m not sure if this should be maintained or if I should request account details from Iqor to pay into if indeed they have been passed the debt. However, they are also requesting an expenditure sheet be filled in before they ‘assess’ and agree any type of payment plan. Considering the existing DMP has been in place for some 18months I would have thought this negated the request. Assuming they are entitled to ask for a revised expenditure plan, they are also asking for my monetary details. Whilst we are married surely they are not entitled to ask for this in an expenditure plan or otherwise since I am not liable for the debt and cannot have my expenditure taken into account or be expected to fund repayments. Whilst the DMP was in joint names, I am loathe to provide Iqor with any of my details. My wife only works part time and cannot afford anything but token payments. Even if they took my wages into account we pay a high rent etc and actually have no money left jointly anyway so it would make no difference to any offer. Although my DMP is active I have fallen out with Payplan who effectively have been utterly useless when trying to telephone and work out a revised plan, such that their inadequacy has resulted in some defaults being registered in last 5months sending our credit rating plummeting (mine went from healthy 999 last Sep to 235 this month). I have been madly writing letters between our debtors and I for a few months but should I bite the bullet and refer this latest issue to them based on possible more weight behind the dialogue to Iqor? GPB IQOR Lloyds debt.pdf

Hi, my wife has now received a default notice from Lloyds and I need advice on what happens next, or how I should respond to them. The notice is served under sectrion 87(1) of Consumer Credit Act 1974 stating I have clause broken 2.1 regards payments. There seems no reasoning with these people since nearly every letter I get is addressed from a diferent PO box and I have had NO replies from my letters sent in return, even when I have enclosed copies of my past correspondence to them. They have ignored all requests, including my Full & final offer. Do Lloyds do this simply to confuse, bully and frustrate you???? I cannot see how this wont just continue until they either sell the debt to a DCA or start ccj proceedings themselves, I have no idea and would like advice please.

Ok, thanks. Should I just write in first instance or send payment (3rd party cheque) stating only to cash it if they agree to said terms?

Great, replaced the original jpeg with pdf and now ok. Thanks