Oh cool. Then that's made me feel a little better. Thanks for the reply. I'll keep an eye on my file.

So, I should just write to the bank again, rephrasing myself? I did wonder about the default itself though; is it issued on the date of the letter - or is it only issued once the 14 days they give you to pay have elapsed? I paid the balance and closed the account 10 days before I received the notice through the post (although four days after the actual date on the notice.) Nothing's yet showing on my file, as it hasn't been updated yet.

Hi everyone. I'm just looking for a bit of advise really. Santander have treated me very unfairly. I opened an account with them via the Internet last May, with the intention of using it for my work expenses. I never ended up using it. Never paid a pound into it. Now, this is my own fault, but as the account was dormant I never opened any mail from them. I just assumed it to be junk. Then I receive a call from them to say this account was £350 overdrawn. Turns out they'd charged me £5 underfunding fee, which then took me overdrawn for which they then charged me £50. This had been going on for a few months - hence the £350 overdrawn balance. I was seriously miffed. Told them I thought it was unfair and, after two phone calls of getting nowhere at all, got through to one lady who managed to reduce the balance down to £150. I paid it and closed the account on 18th Jan. 10 days later I receive a notice of default through the post. It wasn't postmarked but the date on the letter was 14/01/11 - apparently four days before I paid and closed the account. Strange how I didn't receive it until the 28th Jan. I've written to them asking them to remove the data from my credit file as it is totally unfair and brought about solely by their unfair charges. They wrote back telling me that they wouldn't amend the data and I should take it up with the Financial Ombudsmen. Can anyone advise me what to do? I'm so upset that I now have six years of bad credit on my file through something I didn't directly cause. Not to mention the fact that I paid Santander a total of £150 for absolutely nothing. Like I said, the account was totally unused! Grrrr! They're an awful, awful bank and I can't believe how they can justify this. Anyone help?

Hi guys, complicated one this is, so bear with me. Opened a Smile student account in 2000 with an overdraft. Used it fine for three years through uni. Then, when I got employment in 2002 - got a new current account with a different bank and started to pay off Smile Overdraft and a small Smile Visa card using a debt management company (basically because I had a few other debts and I hated having to deal with banks in those days). But this was a big mistake. The debt management co. basically paid the co-op £12 a month for years (the overdraft was originally something like £2000). All through this time the Co-Op regularly sent me letters and calls saying I hadn't paid them, despite the fact the Debt Management company had been. Two years ago I got fed up of still being harassed by the Co-Op and decided to ditch my debt management company and handle things myself. And, I'm now two payments away from settling the debt. However - my credit rating is destroyed because of the Co-Op. They have not defaulted me, but all through the time I was regularly making payment to them through the debt management company they've marked my account with many bad markers - ranging from AP (arrangement to pay) and '6' markers - meaning the account is delinquent. I feel a little hard done by here as I have been paying them all this time - and if they'd closed the account and defaulted me all those years ago, I'd be free (or almost free) of the default and have a better credit file too. Instead they've chosen to keep this account active for 8 years and really screw me. What should I do? Any ideas? Obviously I need to do something before I settle the account in September as I feel I won't have any ammunition if I no longer owe them anything. Can I ask them to remove the account from my file once it's been settled? All suggestions gratefully received!

Yes, thank you. That may be the best route; like I said, don't want to be vindictive - just want to be fair. In general I'm often too easy going and helpful (hence the offer to help her move in) and it usually ends up in me being mugged off. Thanks for the replies guys, this foray into being a live-in landlady is certainly an experience!

Could a 'contract' have been established by the fact she paid the advance rent? An obvious act of intent?

No, she didn't. As a lodger rather than a tenant, I assumed the whole legal standing was more relaxed...

Hi there, and firstly hi to everyone. I've been a long time lurker, but this is my first post. So hello! I decided to rent out my spare room following a split with my partner last year. A lady visited, we got on, so she said she'd take the room and a move in date was agreed. This date had been agreed for two weeks - I'd even arranged to get a van and help her move - despite her living 80 miles away. Anyway - last night, the day before she was due to move in, she informed me that she'd found somewhere else. I was obviously quite annoyed - as I'd arranged to leave work early, hire a van, not to mention the now shortfall in income and extra hassle of going out on finding another lodger. What I want to know is, am I within my rights - morally and legally - to take a week's worth of money out of the advance rent payment she's made to me? It's not on vindictive grounds - as her not moving in has left me in a bit of a short term financial hole, as obviously I was expecting her full rental payment. Any advice would be gratefully received. Thanks all! Emm