Hi I moved into my privately owned , council leased flat in 2002. I did all the relevant registrations with the landlord ( council ) for council tax and service charge. My council tax bills were sent in my name and were paid on time. The Service charge details were not amended. I forwarded the post to the previous owner. In 2005 when I applied for a remortgage I found this problem and I "owed" this debt. When I requested details of the bill the debt was just added to my service charge bill. I had had no details of what they were trying to bill me for and requested I had a copy of the original bill. The Council failed to produce this until February this year in which I recieved a "re- issued invoice " for the period 1st April 2003 - 27th September 2005. I have been trying to find out why I was not billed in the first place as like most people I do not have £1153 spare. The council have refused to advise me of this and still demanded the monies. I made an offer to pay the money over a 6year period. The same time sapn as i took to get a bill. This offer was refused with no chance of negotiation and been refered to solicitors. Does anyone have any idea where I stand legally Thanks in advance