hachette
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Thank you so much for great advice. Lesson learned for her and us.
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The company is Crown River Cruises Ltd. We were told by the manager that £300 should be enough to cover the drinks, we thought it was rather too small amount and paid £500 towards the bar. We have no idea to the actual value. This matter is more of a principal as nobody likes to be cheated in any way and as they cannot provide us with itemized bill that is how they made us feel.
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She paid with her debit card so no way we can charge back the money.
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Am I allow to say the name of the company? If that much was spend on drinks fair enough but we cannot understand how they came up with this total if no record of drinks ordered is available for all we know they could just add £500 or £800 to the bill.
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The problem is my daughter already paid them at the end of the party with her card. We were not at the party so they took advantage of young girl who did not think to ask for an itemized bill.
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For my daughters 21st birthday we have arranged a boat party on Thames. We have agreed the price for the boat, food, entertainment and 1 glass of champagne We have also paid £500 for the drinks at the bar so the guests could order what they like. We informed the company that if the drinks will go above that amount our daughter will settle the balance. There were about 35 quests. At the end of the party the company produced a bill on their headed paper for further £1131.50 which she had paid. We thought that £1631.50 for 35 people drinking for 4 hours was rather excessive and asked the company to provide us with itemised bill to see what drinks were sold. This they have refused saying that there is no till receipts for the drinks. We asked how they could come up with this total if the drinks were not recorded in the till. We were told that they only put the drinks through the till if customers are paying, So why we are not classed as paying customers if we had to settle this bill at the end. We had no further response from them. I would very much appreciate for any advice how to go forward with this as we cannot think of any industry that will bill you without any details of what they are billing you for.
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The only agreement with the tenant he had was for double that amount . So do I take it if he did not have clear signed agreement for £5148 pa that would be misrepresentation?
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Yes it was part of my claim.
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I did pursue this as a misrepresentation but the judge never allowed me to present my case and never addressed any issues in my case inc the rent. that is the problem I feel I had no hearing for which I paid for as it was dismissed in the matter of 10-15 min. Not even sure the judge read my claim.
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Sorry just one more question. This was also part of my case. In auction details it was said that the property was producing £9256 pa. This seemed double the rate for a small 2 bed terrace house in that area. However in their legal pack the short hold tenancy agreement confirmed that amount. I have telephoned the managing agent in this regard and was informed that they credit the tenant back £79 pw therefore the actual income is £5148 pa. That was later amended in auction addendum to that amount. However my tenant tells me that she was never asked any extra rent above what the previous owner was receiving through her benefits office (£4628 pa) and indeed signed the confirmation of this. Can the vendor state that the property is producing £5148 pa if do not have a signed agreement to confirm that income?
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Thank you all for your help. It is very much appreciated. Seems I have to put it down to a bad experience but it is difficult to understand that with all these new laws to protect buyers there is nothing you can do if seller chooses to play dirty.
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Yes I do understand your point about G1.6 however the fact remains he has failed to do so. Also auctioneers do expect the seller to disclose what they should reasonably know about. G1.4 says "The LOT is sold subject to such of the following as may affect it whether before or after CONTRACT DATE and whether or not they are disclosed by the seller or apparent from inspection (i) anything the seller does not and could not reasonably know about" So that means if he failed to disclose something he was not aware of I could not make a claim. What if he was totally aware of it? I have a confirmation from the council that they have e-mailed them the letter with schedule of repairs on 16/7 ,I have exchanged contracts on 21/7. Seems to me the vendor did everything to secure the sale and avoid expensive repairs by withholding this information and there is no law against that.
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G1.6 " The SELLER must notify the BUYER of any notices,orders,demands,proposals and requirements of any competent authority of which it learns after the CONTRACT DATE but the BUYER must comply with them and keep the SELLER indemnified."
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Yes auction conditions clause G1.6 requires to disclose any authority letter received even after contract. This was also part of my claim. The vendor admitted to it saying this was not disclosed in error. Yet again the Judge never addressed this issue.
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Hi I am not an expert but the same happened to me. My friend borrowed £3000 of me and said it was until her mother's house was sold. 2 years and long time after her mothers house was sold she still did not pay me back. When I asked her about she said sha has invested the money. Very funny. I took a claim against her with Money claim on Line, can't remember how much it cost me but you add this amount to what they own you anyway. I had no written agreement with her but could show that I have transfered that money to her account. Anyway the bottom line is she has paid me back. Getting all these documents from court did the trick. Hope you can to this in friendly way but if not go for it. Hope this helps.
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