As briefly as I can. On 2nd March I paid to renew my car insurance over the phone using my debit card, the insurers took payment, told me I was then covered and the sum was shown as a debit on my bank account the same day.. For the following six days the car was shown as uninsured on askMID.com so I couldn’t use the car. I waited over an hour on each of three phone calls to them without being able to speak to a human so I gave up. On 8th March the insurers sent a text saying following a system failure it was not possible for your Motor renewal to be activated, the premium had been refunded and I needed to contact them to make a further payment! Needless to say I didn’t renew with them and insured elsewhere. My concern is that technically the insurer cancelled my insurance –albeit their own fault – so would I need to disclose this with future insurers? Or did the insurance never exist in the first place? Thanks

Credit card debt referred to CL/Lewis for collection. Taken to court, CCA request ignored by court, ordered to pay by instalments commencing August 2009. No judgement given providing installments were made. Final installment due about July this year hence need for statements showing installments to date for clarification.

No, the debt is not on my credit file. What are the rules/regs/law that say they have to provide annual statements so I can quote this when writing again.

I've been repaying a debt to C L Finance since 2009 by monthly standing order. The first and only statement they sent me was in 2010. I wrote to them a month ago requesting statements covering the past four years but they have not replied. Are they not under some obligation to provide annual statements showing the reducing balance ?

1) Defamation. Only applies where untrue comments and which can not be justified are disclosed to a third party, neither apply here. Would cost her £100K to take to court. No lawyer would touch it. 2) Harrassment. You are perfectly entitled to persue her as much and as often as you choose in order to reach a settlement. That's not harrassment. 3) Her 'pregnancy'. Totally irrelevant. I would suggest you send a recorded delivery letter seeking a full refund after which you will consider the matter closed and indicating your reluctance to seek the involement of the DWP, Police, HMRC etc etc.

Just read this. Having experienced the same with other companies who do not accept cancellations and where a card has been used the easiest answer is to report your card as lost, you will be issued with a new one with a new number so no further charges can be taken from the old card.

By using 'attack is the best form of defence' the healer is trying to scare you off. What sort of legal threats is she making ?

Simple. They say you were working you say you were not. You don't have to prove a negative whilst they do have to provide evidence to support their assertion.

It's now a month since this complaint was made both to Woolwich Mortgage Collections and the branch where the money was paid in. I have been ignored- neither have responded. I am now completing the complaint form to the FOS but would first ask why you think a complaint to them will get me nowhere. I believe the banks have an obligation to respond to issues raised by the FOS so at least this will reveal the whereabouts of the funds I paid in at their branch.

It's now ten days since I wrote by recorded delivery to both Woolwich motgage collections and the Barclays branch without a response from either. A copy of the stamped counterfoil/receipt was sent to both. I've already been charged fees for late payment. Today I've received my Woolwich December statement showing a payment received by them in December of £0.01 ! Yes, One penny! This is an insult. Hence my mention of the FOS, we are at in impasse, at what point do I complain to them?

I always pay my monthly mortgage instalment to The Woolwich by Building Society cheque posted to Leicester. On the back of each statement it says "...you can also pay at any branch of Barclays Bank.." In December I did just that and paid in over the counter at my local Barclays branch. I obtained a stamped counterfoil/receipt which showed my mortgage account number. Early in January I received a notice of arrears and charges and upon telephoning Woolwich customer services they tell me that the cheques I paid in at Barclays branch had not been received by them at mortgage collections. They told me I had to provide proof it had been sent by the branch to them! On reflection I wrote to Woolwich mortgage collections as well as the Barclays branch saying that the cheques had cleared, that I had their stamped counterfoil which for me was adiquate proof, and it was both beyond my ability and not for me to prove their internal systems for transferring funds. I have not had a response. Am I right in adopting that approach? How long should I leave it before referring the matter to the FOS ? I read somewhere that once referred to the FOS a fee has to be paid by the bank. Is this correct. Any advice would be much appreciated.

I always pay my monthly mortgage instalment to The Woolwich by Building Society cheque posted to Leicester. On the back of each statement it says "...you can also pay at any branch of Barclays Bank.." In December I did just that and paid in over the counter at my local Barclays branch. I obtained a stamped counterfoil/receipt which showed my mortgage account number. Early in January I received a notice of arrears and upon telephoning Woolwich customer services they tell me that the cheques I paid in at Barclays branch had not been received by them at mortgage collections. They told me I had to provide proof it had been sent by the branch to them! On reflection I wrote to Woolwich mortgage collections as well as the Barclays branch saying that the cheques had cleared, that I had their stamped counterfoil which for me was adiquate proof, and it was both beyond my ability and not for me to prove their internal systems for transferring funds. I have not had a response. Am I right in adopting that approach? How long should I leave it before referring the matter to the FOS ? I read somewhere that once referred to the FOS a fee has to be paid by the bank. Is this correct. Any advice would be much appreciated.

Many thanks for that Bazaar. I'm aware of SAR's but I understand additionally lenders must now provide an annual statement so borrowers know what's been credited and debited to their account. Quoting from a letter from Sainsbury's Bank: "From 1st October 2008 it has been a legal requirement for us to send you statements relating to your credit agreement. Your first statement will only show transactions from this date up to when it is sent and may cover a period of less than twelve months." It's the name of this "legal requirement" I'm after.

I believe there was a change in the law effective from October 08 requiring all providers of credit to send to borrowers a statement at least annually. My lender is refusing to provide such a statement and I would like to quote the law verbatim. What is that law? Thanks.

Thanks tendogs. A sad tale I'm afraid. See my other post: http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/legal-issues/192127-lost-court-today.html At the CMC the judge said he would issue a written order but as yet not received after nearly four weeks. I cannot do any more untill I see that order.