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68cats

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  1. Hello I have been working for a company for the last 20 months. I signed a contract of employment at the beginning of November 2009. I have resigned my position with my last paid day being 31 August 2011. I will have worked for 22 months. When handing in my notice I pulled my contract of employment to check notice terms etc. I noticed that my contract had the following clause "Remuneration Your salary is currently £xxxxxx per annum payable monthly by credit transfer as detailed on your pay statement. Plus £yyyy per month in respect of the service allowance." I have, for the entire period of 22 months, been paid the correct salary but the "service allowance" has been divided by 12 and paid monthly. This means that according to the terms of the contract I have been underpaid by £yyyy x 22 less the 22 x £yyyy/12 (I hope that makes sense). Put simply they have paid an amount which is specified as a monthly amount in the contract as though it were an annual amount. Do I have a case for breach of contract which would make consulting a solicitor worthwhile or would it just be considered to be an error in the contract?
  2. Thanks for the advice. I wll let you know how it goes.
  3. I have checked and the address they have the alleged account linked to isn't actually the same as any I have lived at (close but no cigar). I suspect the last payment made on the alleged account is just under 6 years ago. Would I be right in assuming that if I avoid acknowledging any debt until the 6 years have passed that it would be unenforceable anyway or does the clock start ticking again on receipt of the first letter. I propose to send the following to them (I mark all letters like this "Without Prejudice" top and bottom of every page and send them recorded delivery) what do you think: Dear Mr Nobody, Re: your reference xxxx Further to your letter of , I refer you to my letter of and the reply of your of . I do not acknowledge any debt to your company and moreover have never lived at the address you have referred to in your letters. With reference to your comments about someone visiting me at my home to collect payments, please be advised that I will only communicate with you in writing. Should it be your intention to arrange a “doorstep call” anyway, please be advised that under OFT rules, you can only visit me at my home if you make an appointment and I have no wish to make an appointment with you. There is only an implied license under Common Law for people to be able to visit me on my property without express permission; the postman and people asking for directions etc (Armstrong v. Sheppard and Short Ltd [1959] 2 Q.B. per Lord Evershed M.R.). Therefore take note that I revoke license under Common Law for you, or your representatives to visit me at my property and if you do so, then you will be liable to damages for a tort of trespass and action will be taken, including but not limited to, police attendance. yours etc
  4. Hello, I recently received a letter from Lowell FInancial regarding an address I lived at in 2000. In the first letter they merely enquired if I was the same person who had lived at that address. In the second letter they talked about a Barclaycard debt for about 5500. I sent a CCA request with £1 and received a letter dated 21/11/07 telling me they had requested the CCA from the original creditor. Today I have received a much less pleasant letter again dated 21/11/07 threatening to send an agent to visit. I want to quickly put a stop to that. What sort of format should my letter take to tell them that I would consider such action harrassment and revoking their right to visit. In my CCA request I indicated that I would not correspond until in possession of a CCA signed by myself but I need to ensure that I revoke their right to visit my home. I know I could send them away with a flea in their ear but I'd rather not have to. Does anyone have a rough template letter I can send.
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