Hope someone can help with this? I have lived in my house since 1976. Never had a demand for this rent until now. The demand from Linder Myers Solicitors says made payable by a conveyance dated 6th December 1898. Executors of Mrs Marjorie Wilkinson Dodd Rent owner under a conveyance of 24-12-1990 I own the Freehold which I purchased in 2001 so I don't pay any Ground Rent and I know this is a separate charge. On the document from the Land Registry under Charges Register it states:- 1.The land in this title is with other land subject to a perpetual yearly rent charge of £27.14s .0d created by a Conveyance dated 6 December 1898 made between (1) Mabel Newton Taylor and (2) Thomas Whitehead. The said Deed also contains covenants. NOTE: Abstract filed under LA127521. By the Conveyance dated 22 November 1933 referred to below the land conveyed was informally exonerated from this rent charge. 2. (24.04.1986) LEASE dated 10 May 1929 for 999 years from 10 May 1929. Note : Lesee's title registered under under GM94593. 3. The land in this title with other land is subject to a perpetual yearly rent charge of £8 created by a Conveyance dated 22 November 1933 made between !9 Joseph Warburton and William Albert Downs. The said Deed also contains covenants. NOTE: Copy filed under GM408242 There is no mention of conveyance dated 24-12-1990. Bit long winded I know but any advice appreciated Also they are claiming arrears from 2012 to date

Hi folks, So I am not to experienced dealing with letting agents, their reputation for lack of morals has me avoiding contact if necessary. I have an agent who intends to charge me a relisting fee of 400 pounds if I were to end my contract 2 months early. Yes it is legal in the contract as per their outlined conditions. "If the tenant vacates the premises during the term apart from according to any agreed break clause which is included within the agreement the tenant will remain liable to pay the rent and any other monies payable under this agreement until the term expires; or the premises are relet whichever is earlier.In addition an administration charge of £400.00 (inc. VAT) will become immediately due to cover the landloard's cost of remarketing, reletting and administration costs. Please note that this early termination must be agreeable with the landlord." So it looks like they have me by the balls there. BUT Upon closer inspection I see that in the shorthold tenancy agreement I also find the following: The tenant shall pay to the Landlord or the Landlord's agent *NAME REDACTED* by way of rent the amount of £550 per half yearly by Bank Standing Order to: *NAME REDACTED*. So I am paying £550 per month, but they say per 6 months/half yearly. Am I legally only obliged to pay £550 every 6 months? Many thanks from a destitute university graduate.

I have not earned enough to pay back my student loan for the last ten years. I now find I am slightly above the threshold, if indeed it is a monthly threshold. Over the course of the last year I have earned less than the yearly threshold. Over the course of the last three months I have earned less than the threshold (divided by 4). However, the fact remains that my monthly salary is currently above the threshold and has been for the last two months. How is the threshold calculated? Is it on the previous years earnings divide by 12? On this months earnings? Thanks

Just a quick question, probably a simple answer. I get paid a yearly bonus, this year it was close to £3000, but I've only ended up with £1800 home. My pay is in the region of 30k. Why am I taxed so heavily? I know I'll get taxed on all of the bonus, but it seems way more than the 20% tax rate. Is it because the system is assuming I'll get paid at that rate for the remainder of the tax year, and I'll get some back next month? or what's going on??

Hi, A newly opened Yoga places is offering a limited number of yearly memberships if they are prepaid in full. I been there lots the last month, I really like the place, it is convinient and the deal is great. Now the snagg, it must be prepaid in full, now I am being clever so paying it on my credit card for extra protection. I know I am going to use it so it pays of to get it BUT playing devil's advocate what are my consumer rights for a refund if I have an accident in lets say 6 month time and can't use it, or get evicted (not planning to but landlords are sometimes crazy) and move too far away. Could not find aything covering this in their T&C's and the girl on reception seemed very new so she couldn't answer. The nearest in the T&C's were this; "2.10 Subject to any statutory right of cancellation, payments for Memberships and Classes are non-refundable unless otherwise stated in these Terms and Conditions." So ignoring them and from a purely consumer rights perspective what are my rights to a refund if I have to cancel due to moving or for medical reasons? Is medical reasons and moving statutory rights? Thanks in advance