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    • I have had a secondary thought.  I borrowed £s from a completely separate entity 6y ago. It was personal and unsecured. I was going to repay upon sale of the property. But then repo and I couldn't.  Eventually they applied and got a charging order on the property.  Their lawyers wrote that if I didn't repay they may apply for an order for sale.  I'm not in control of the sale.  The lender won't agree to an order for sale.  The judge won't expedite it/ extract from trial.  Someone here on cag may or may not suggest I can apply for an order v the receiver?  But could I alternatively ask this separate entity with a c.o to carry out their threat and actually make an application to court for an order for sale v the receiver instead?
    • You left the PCN number showing, but no worries, I've redacted it. Euro Car parks are very well known to us.  I've just skimmed through the titles of the latest 100 cases we have with them (I gave up after 100) and, despite all their bluster and threats, in not one have they taken the Cagger to court. You stayed there for 2 hours &:45 minutes.  I'm guessing the limit is 2 hours and 30 minutes, right?  
    • If the claimant fails to draft directions the court can order a Case Management Hearing to set them but normally in Fast Track claims the claimant sets the directions...Unlike small claims track which are always set the court.
    • Not Evris offer, the court offers mediation service.   All claims proceed to hearing if mediation fails /not happen.   Why do you not wish to attend in person to stand your claim ?     Absolutely you must comply with the courts directions or your claim risks being struck out. Preparation for a hearing should happen irrespective of mediation.   https://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/topic/460613-suing-a-parcel-delivery-company-when-you-dont-have-a-direct-contract-with-them-–-third-party-rights-copy-of-judgment-available/#comment-5255007   Andy  
    • LPA.  (I'm fighting insolvency due to all the stuff that he and lender have done).  He appointed estate agents - (changed several times). Disclosure shows he was originally appointed for a specific reason (3m after repo) : using his powers as acting for leaseholder to serve notice on freeholders (to grab fh).  There was interest from 3 potential buyers. He chose one whose offer depended on a positive result of the notice.  Disc also shows he'd taken counsel advice - which was 'he'd fail'.  He'd simultaneously asked to resign as his job (of serving notice) was done and he'd found a buyer.  Lender asked him to stay on to assign notice to the buyer.  Notice failed, buyer didn't buy.  So receiver stayed.  There was 1 buyer who wanted to proceed w/o fh but receiver/ lender wasted 1y trying to get rid of them!  Disc shows why. But I didn't know why at the time. In later months Lender voiced getting rid of receiver. Various reasons - including cost.  But there's a contradiction/ irony: as I've seen an email (of 4y ago) which shows the receiver telling lender not to incur significant costs and to minimize receiver costs.    Yet lender then asked him to serve another notice - again counsel advice indicated 'he'd fail'.  And he did fail.  But wasted 3y trying and incurred huge legal costs - lender trying to pass on to me. Lender interfered - said wanted to do works.  Receiver should have said no.  But disc. shows he agreed to step aside to let them do the works - on proviso lender would discuss potential costs first (they didn't), works wouldn't take long (took 15m), and lender would hold interest (they didn't) (this last point is crucial for me now - as I need to know if I can argue that all interest beyond this point shouldnt be allowed?)   I need to check receiver witness statement in litigation with freeholders to see exactly what he said about 'his position'. But I remember it being along the lines of - 'if the works increased the value of the property he didn't have a problem'.  Lender/ receiver real problems started at this point. The cost of works and 4y passage of time has meant there is no real increase in value. Lender (or receiver) didn't get any permissions (statutory or fh) (and didn't tell me) and just bulldozed the property to an empty shell.  The freeholders served notice on me as leaseholder for breach of covenants (strict no alterations).  The Lender stepped in (acting for me) to issue notice for relief of forfeiture - not the receiver.  That wasted 2y of litigation (3y if inc the works) and incurred huge costs (both sides).  Lender's aim was to do the works that every potential buyer balked at due to the lease restrictions.  Lender and receiver knew couldn't do works w/o fh permission. Lender did them anyway; receiver allowed.  Receiver remained appointed.  I'm arguing lender interfered in receiver duties.  Receiver should have just sold property 4-5y ago w/o allowing any works.  Almost 3y since works finished the property remains unsold (>5y from repo). The property looks brand new - but it was great before.  The lender spent a ton of money - hoping that would facilitate a quick sale.  But the money they spent and the years they have wasted has meant they had to increase sale price.  It's now completely overpriced.  And - of course - the same issues that put buyers off (before works) still exist.   The receiver has tried for 2y to assert the works increased value. But he is relying on agents estimates - which have proved highly speculative. (Usual trick of an agent to give a high value to get the business - and then tell seller to reduce when no-one buys.). And of course lender continues to accrue interest (despite 4y ago receiver saying pause interest). Lender tried to persuade receiver to use specific agent. Disc shows this agent was best friends with the lender's main investor in the property.  Before works this agent had valued it low.  After works this agent suggested a value 70% higher!  The lender persuaded receiver to sack one agent and instead use this agent.  No offers. (Price way too high).   Research has uncovered that this main investor has since died.  I guess his investment is part of probate? And his family want it back?    Disc shows the sacked agent had actually received a high offer 1y ago.  Receiver rejected it.  (thus I don't know if the buyer would have ever proceeded). He was relying on the high speculative valuation the agents had given him to pitch for the business. The agents were in a catch-22.  The receiver sacked them. Disc shows there has been 0 interest ever since (inc via new agent requested by lender). I don't think lender or receiver want all this to come out in public domain via a trial.  It will ruin their reputations. If I can't get an order for sale with lender - can I apply separately against receiver?
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what is my liability and what should i do? please read


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2 years ago i bought a motorcycle and titles never changed to my name

 

.seller called me now and told me that 1 year ago supposingly someone took my bike and failed to stop on police signal in the night.

 

the police contacted previous owner as it was still registered to him,

went at the police station but he didnt remember my details to contact me.

 

now,after 6 months, he remembered my details as he stands a court for failing to transfer the titles and he said he is going to mention me in the court.

ofcourse it wasnt me.

 

by the way i have transferred the titles to my name today.

i dont want to blame the previous owner as the truth is that i had the bike but didnt commit that offence.

 

as i checked my messenger i was talking to my gf that night from home so i can prove that and from my ip.

 

how can i prove it and what can i say if called to court after all this time?

what are my liabilities?

 

more over will i be the keeper in law's eyes?

 

best regards

Edited by dx100uk
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WHy didnt you transfer the title when you bought it?

 

And if you had the bike.. who comitted the offence. You are obliged to name the person to the police, or the consequences can be a lot more severe.

Any advice i give is my own and is based solely on personal experience. If in any doubt about a situation , please contact a certified legal representative or debt counsellor..

 

 

If my advice helps you, click the star icon at the bottom of my post and feel free to say thanks

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WHy didnt you transfer the title when you bought it?

 

And if you had the bike.. who comitted the offence. You are obliged to name the person to the police, or the consequences can be a lot more severe.

 

How can i name a person after a year of not having knowledge of such an event occured?

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So you have this bike, which you say has been broken and unused for the last two years (so broken that it wasn't taxed or declared off road). But in the middle of those two years somebody rode it and committed an offence on it.

 

Your liability is that, as the person keeping the vehicle at the time of an allegation (which you do not dispute), you have an obligation, if you are asked, to provide the details of the driver at the time of that allegation. Have you been formally asked? What exactly is your involvement at present?

 

If you fill in the gaps in the story (both parts as mentioned above) you may get some help.

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So you have this bike, which you say has been broken and unused for the last two years (so broken that it wasn't taxed or declared off road). But in the middle of those two years somebody rode it and committed an offence on it.

 

Your liability is that, as the person keeping the vehicle at the time of an allegation (which you do not dispute), you have an obligation, if you are asked, to provide the details of the driver at the time of that allegation. Have you been formally asked? What exactly is your involvement at present?

 

If you fill in the gaps in the story (both parts as mentioned above) you may get some help.

 

i agree that my liability would be to provide details if i was the keeper. but formaly i wasnt as nor titles were exchanged nor any other proof of sale to me. its like a friend gave a car to me to keep at my home and i gave it to another guy who crashed it. who would be liable for damages? anyway. even if i am the keeper under the eyes of law, how can i provide details now after 1 year for a supposed incident of what i dont have a clue it happened? i havent been formally asked by anyone but since the registered owner is going to present my name at court i believe i will be called. I dont have an involment at present except of what is mentioned.

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i agree that my liability would be to provide details if i was the keeper. but formaly i wasnt as nor titles were exchanged nor any other proof of sale to me

 

You were "the person keeping the vehicle" at the relevant time. It does not matter if you were the not the Registered Keeper, or the owner. "The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details). To understand this, imagine a leased car. The lease company will be the owner and the Registered Keeper, but they are not the "person keeping the vehicle". The person to whom it is leased and who (presumably) usually drives it is.

 

I don't actually know what your concern about having to name the driver is at this stage. If the previous owner is being prosecuted for failing to notify a change of ownership that has nothing to do with you. If he mentions that he sold it to you there is no reason why you should be formally asked to provide the driver's details at the time of the offence you mention. The two things are unrelated. What may be of a more urgent concern to you is that you have had in your possession a motor vehicle which you have neither registered in your own name, nor paid vehicle excise duty nor declared it off road. You may find some enquiries re made into that situation now that you have contacted the DVLA though you may escape action for some of those offences as you were not the Registered Keeper.

 

There is no point is running through your situation should you face a request to name the driver unless and until it is made of you. One thing the prosecutors may bear in mind is that for most (though not all) driving offences there is a limit of six months from the date of the offence beyond which no prosecution can take place.

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Cloned number plate?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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Cloned number plate?

 

Very possibly (although they are incredibly rare). Unfortunately we don't have any indication from the OP whether or not he believes his vehicle was involved or not. We only know that he took possession of the bike, did nothing to formalise his ownership of it and then it remained, seemingly unused because it was broken.

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I wonder if there is video footage or if its just a PC got it wrong when they failed to stop?

and its just progressed through the system?

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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You were "the person keeping the vehicle" at the relevant time. It does not matter if you were the not the Registered Keeper, or the owner. "The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details). To understand this, imagine a leased car. The lease company will be the owner and the Registered Keeper, but they are not the "person keeping the vehicle". The person to whom it is leased and who (presumably) usually drives it is.

 

I don't actually know what your concern about having to name the driver is at this stage. If the previous owner is being prosecuted for failing to notify a change of ownership that has nothing to do with you. If he mentions that he sold it to you there is no reason why you should be formally asked to provide the driver's details at the time of the offence you mention. The two things are unrelated. What may be of a more urgent concern to you is that you have had in your possession a motor vehicle which you have neither registered in your own name, nor paid vehicle excise duty nor declared it off road. You may find some enquiries re made into that situation now that you have contacted the DVLA though you may escape action for some of those offences as you were not the Registered Keeper.

 

There is no point is running through your situation should you face a request to name the driver unless and until it is made of you. One thing the prosecutors may bear in mind is that for most (though not all) driving offences there is a limit of six months from the date of the offence beyond which no prosecution can take place.

 

if he mentions that he sold it to me i dont think that court and police will just drop the case.As you said above''The person keeping the vehicle" has a specific mention in Section 172 of the Road Traffic Act (which is the legislation that places the obligation on you to provide drivers details)''so i believe they will enquire me about identifying the driver as i had it in my possesion and if i tell them i dont know they will assume i was the driver even though i wasnt. i am so scared by the whole situation.also will that hit my criminal record?

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You keep on asking the same question and I keep on giving you the same answer. There is too much missing from this story to answer properly. However, I'll try one last time:

 

As I understand it the situation is this:

 

 

- You bought a bike two years ago and failed to ensure that it was registered in your name.

- A year ago someone was detected on the bike (or at least a vehicle with that registration number) committing a traffic offence.

- The police went to the previous owner (in whose name the bike was still registered).

- He told them he had sold the bike but could not remember your details.

- Six months later he finally did remember your details.

- He now faces court for failing to ensure that the registration had been transferred.

 

(Please tell me if I have any of this wrong)

 

So up to now you have no responsibilities. You haven't been asked to supply any details to anyone. However, he already faces action for failing to notify the DVLA of a change of ownership. You may face action for failing to tax the vehicle (or declare it off road). You may also face action for failing to insure the vehicle. Under the "continuous insurance" legislation a vehicle not declared off road must have third party insurance (and I assume from what you say that you didn't have any). There's nothing you can do about either of those. You must wait and see what, if any, allegations are made.

 

Although you currently have no responsibility to name the driver at the time of the alleged offence a year ago, a request might come your way. In order to help with that you need to say what the offence was (and you won't know that until you get an official request). It would also help if you said whether you believed your vehicle could have been involved or whether you believe that it was another vehicle. But until you get an official request there is nothing you can do anyway.

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You have nothing wrong in your understanding.

That is how the things are currently.

 

The guy has a court in a month so i will have to wait.

Thank you for the time you consume for answering my enqueries

Edited by dx100uk
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agree, all you can do is wait. Sometimes it is just not worth their while taking actiondue to cost or the liklihood of getting a conviction is low. If there is somehting the DVLA can clobber you for a flat fee penalty I'm sure you will hear soon enough

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