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    • The Notice to Hirer does not comply with the protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule  4 . This is before I ask if Europarks have sent you a copy of the PCN they sent to Arval along with a copy of the hire agreement et. if they haven't done that either you are totally in the clear and have nothing to worry about and nothing to pay. The PCN they have sent you is supposed to be paid by you according to the Act within 21 days. The chucklebuts have stated 28 days which is the time that motorists have to pay. Such a basic and simple thing . The Act came out in 2012 and still they cannot get it right which is very good news for you. Sadly there is no point in telling them- they won't accept it because they lose their chance to make any money out of you. they are hoping that by writing to you demanding money plus sending in their  unregulated debt collectors and sixth rate solicitors that you might be so frightened as to pay them money so that you can sleep at night. Don't be surprised if some of their letters are done in coloured crayons-that's the sort of  level of people you will be dealing with. Makes great bedding for the rabbits though. Euro tend not to be that litigious but while you can safely ignore the debt collectors just keep an eye out for a possible Letter of Claim. They are pretty rare but musn't be ignored. Let us know so that you can send a suitably snotty letter to them showing that you are not afraid of them and are happy to go to Court as you like winning.  
    • They did reply to my defence stating it would fail and enclosed copies of NOA, DN Term letter and account statements. All copies of T&C's that could be reconstructions and the IP address on there resolves to the town where MBNA offices are, not my location
    • Here are 7 of our top tips to help you connect with young people who have left school or otherwise disengaged.View the full article
    • My defence was standard no paperwork:   1.The Defendant contends that the particulars of claim are generic in nature. The Defendant accordingly sets out its case below and relies on CPR r 16.5 (3) in relation to any particular allegation to which a specific response has not been made. 2. Paragraph 1 is noted. The Defendant has had a contractual relationship with MBNA Limited in the past. The Defendant does not recognise the reference number provided by the claimant within its particulars and has sought verification from the claimant who is yet to comply with requests for further information. 3. Paragraph 2 is denied. The Defendant maintains that a default notice was never received. The Claimant is put to strict proof to that a default notice was issued by MBNA Limited and received by the Defendant. 4. Paragraph 3 is denied. The Defendant is unaware of any legal assignment or Notice of Assignment allegedly served from either the Claimant or MBNA Limited. 5. On the 02/01/2023 the Defendant requested information pertaining to this claim by way of a CCA 1974 Section 78 request. The claimant is yet to respond to this request. On the 19/05/2023 a CPR 31.14 request was sent to Kearns who is yet to respond. To date, 02/06/2023, no documentation has been received. The claimant remains in default of my section 78 request. 6. It is therefore denied with regards to the Defendant owing any monies to the Claimant, the Claimant has failed to provide any evidence of proof of assignment being sent/ agreement/ balance/ breach or termination requested by CPR 31.14, therefore the Claimant is put to strict proof to: (a) show how the Defendant entered into an agreement; and (b) show and evidence the nature of breach and service of a default notice pursuant to Section 87(1) CCA1974 (c) show how the claimant has reached the amount claimed for; and (d) show how the Claimant has the legal right, either under statute or equity to issue a claim; 7. As per Civil Procedure Rule 16.5(4), it is expected that the Claimant prove the allegation that the money is owed. 8. On the alternative, as the Claimant is an assignee of a debt, it is denied that the Claimant has the right to lay a claim due to contraventions of Section 136 of the Law of Property Act and Section 82A of the consumer credit Act 1974. 9. By reasons of the facts and matters set out above, it is denied that the Claimant is entitled to the relief claimed or any relief.
    • Monika the first four pages of the Private parking section have at least 12 of our members who have also been caught out on this scam site. That's around one quarter of all our current complaints. Usually we might expect two current complaints for the same park within 4 pages.  So you are in good company and have done well in appealing to McDonalds in an effort to resolve the matter without having  paid such a bunch of rogues. Most people blindly pay up. Met . Starbucks and McDonalds  are well aware of the situation and seem unwilling to make it easier for motorists to avoid getting caught. For instance, instead of photographing you, if they were honest and wanted you  to continue using their services again, they would have said "Excuse me but if you are going to go to Mc donalds from here, it will cost you £100." But no they kett quiet and are now pursuing you for probably a lot more than £100 now. They also know thst  they cannot charge anything over the amount stated on the car park signs. Their claims for £160 or £170 are unlawful yet so many pay that to avoid going to Court. When the truth is that Met are unlikely to take them to Court since they know they will lose. The PCNs are issued on airport land which is covered by Byelaws so only the driver can be pursued, not the keeper. But they keep writing to you as they do not know who was driving unless you gave it away when you appealed. Even if they know you were driving they should still lose in Court for several reasons. The reason we ask you to fill out our questionnaire is to help you if MET do decide to take you to Court in the end. Each member who visited the park may well have different experiences while there which can help when filling out a Witness statement [we will help you with that if it comes to it.] if you have thrown away the original PCN  and other paperwork you obviously haven't got a jerbil or a guinea pig as their paper makes great litter boxes for them.🙂 You can send an SAR to them to get all the information Met have on you to date. Though if you have been to several sites already, you may have done that by now. In the meantime, you will be being bombarded by illiterate debt collectors and sixth rate solicitors all threatening you with ever increasing amounts as well as being hung drawn and quartered. Their letters can all be safely ignored. On the odd chance that you may get a Letter of Claim from them just come back to us and we will get you to send a snotty letter back to them so that they know you are not happy, don't care a fig for their threats and will see them off in Court if they finally have the guts to carry on. If you do have the original PCN could you please post it up, carefully removing your name. address and car registration number but including dates and times. If not just click on the SAR to take you to the form to send to Met.
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Sick pay help


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I have a couple of questions,

 

A company's policy on sick pay entitlement is as follows -

 

 

During probationary period Zero

 

Completed probationary period

and up to one year's service 2 weeks full pay

 

During 2nd and 3rd year of

service 6 weeks full pay

 

During 4th and 5th year of

service 12 weeks full pay

 

Firstly can someone tell me if that phrase 'completed probationary period and up to one year's service' means you start counting from the start of employment or from the end of the probationary period please?

 

And next is there anything, if service has been continuous, which could mean an employee does not move into the next bracket on the appropriate anniversary?

 

There is a further table on the contract for shift workers, same periods of employment but then sick pay is given in shifts and after this table it says 'once you have exhausted your sickness entitlement in any 12 month rolling period you will no longer accrue the right to further sick pay again until you have been back at work for a continuous period of 26 weeks'. This makes total sense for that table because of the nature of the employment but there's nothing to say this doesn't apply to both types of employee. Does this mean if you use up your entitlement, go back to work and five months later have a day off with eg a migraine you go back to square one and unless you do six months full attendance at some point you will never again accrue entitlement to sick pay?

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I have a couple of questions,

 

A company's policy on sick pay entitlement is as follows -

 

 

During probationary period Zero

 

Completed probationary period

and up to one year's service 2 weeks full pay

 

During 2nd and 3rd year of

service 6 weeks full pay

 

During 4th and 5th year of

service 12 weeks full pay

 

Firstly can someone tell me if that phrase 'completed probationary period and up to one year's service' means you start counting from the start of employment or from the end of the probationary period please?

 

And next is there anything, if service has been continuous, which could mean an employee does not move into the next bracket on the appropriate anniversary?

 

There is a further table on the contract for shift workers, same periods of employment but then sick pay is given in shifts and after this table it says 'once you have exhausted your sickness entitlement in any 12 month rolling period you will no longer accrue the right to further sick pay again until you have been back at work for a continuous period of 26 weeks'. This makes total sense for that table because of the nature of the employment but there's nothing to say this doesn't apply to both types of employee. Does this mean if you use up your entitlement, go back to work and five months later have a day off with eg a migraine you go back to square one and unless you do six months full attendance at some point you will never again accrue entitlement to sick pay?

 

 

Your first question is answered thus: from month 4 to month 12, inclusive.

 

Second question: based upon information posted here - no.

 

The third question: I would imagine it is only for shift workers if it there is a separate section in the policy/contract just for shift workers, although the employer may have intended this applies to all staff. It is, after all, quite common to have such restrictions and I would be very surprised if they don’t cover all staff.

 

Finally: yes.

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Thank you for such a swift answer. You have all the information I have and I believe it to be complete :)

So, if the accounting period spans an anniversary is the employee entitled to the enhanced entitlement for that period after the anniversary? This makes a difference as to whether they did or didn't use up their entitlement - hence my questions.

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Thank you for such a swift answer. You have all the information I have and I believe it to be complete :)

So, if the accounting period spans an anniversary is the employee entitled to the enhanced entitlement for that period after the anniversary? This makes a difference as to whether they did or didn't use up their entitlement - hence my questions.

 

I would say yes, that does appear to be the case but I would recommend you ask your HR Dept directly for clarification.

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Not my HR disgruntled - I'm long retired :) I really am asking for someone else and it's HR causing the problem. There has been a lot of employee 'sickness' over the last few months in this particular company due to truly extraordinary circumstances and they are now looking to claw back what they claim are overpayments in sick pay. They can pick their accounting period and they don't appear to be taking any account of the anniversary increment.

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Well just got a further update and it is the 26 week rule which is crucifying one employee. They used up their entitlement three years ago and have only had the odd day off here and there since (5 in total) but these have never been more than six months apart.

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Well just got a further update and it is the 26 week rule which is crucifying one employee. They used up their entitlement three years ago and have only had the odd day off here and there since (5 in total) but these have never been more than six months apart.

 

Well, them’s the rules...

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Agreed. The circumstances leading to this year's absences are such that the company paid sick pay because it would have looked very bad if they hadn't at the time. Nasty though to do so with the intent of clawing it back later when things quieten down.

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Maybe there is a history of abuse?

 

I know an employer who was fed up with three or four persistent abusers of a very generous sick pay clause. The employer simply changed everybody’s contract (legally, I might add) to vastly reduce the allowances.

 

Had it been me I would have dismissed the offenders and left the rest of the staff to their responsible attitude towards sickness.

 

Whilst not wishing to presume, is it possible this particular employee is taking the p155? I mean taking the odd day off here and there and never more than six months apart smells very much like swinging the lead to me.

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Not just one employee and truly exceptional circumstances - a one off.

The odd days off, a couple a year are various but two were hospital full day investigations. The increase in entitlement anniversary appears to be helping another employee.

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Not just one employee and truly exceptional circumstances - a one off.

The odd days off, a couple a year are various but two were hospital full day investigations. The increase in entitlement anniversary appears to be helping another employee.

 

Hospital investigations are not sick leave, and shouldn't be claimed as such. Time off for medical appointments is unpaid unless the employer says otherwise - but not sick pay. Generally, the majority of employers would expect a full day for medical appointments to be taken as unpaid leave or annual leave.

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In which case those days should be clawed back by the company as overpayments? Forgive me for double checking but this could work to the benefit of the employee so are you absolutely sure? Employees tell their line manager why they won't be at work so booking the day as sick leave isn't done by the employee themselves - it will have been a mistake by line managers or HR.

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Have you checked every piece of paper associated with that policy for the word “discretionary “?

 

Did the employee have the option to book holiday but chose another option? How exactly was the leave booked? Did they have available holiday days at the time?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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did they even ASK? first thing I would have done, they might well have been given the time off as discretionary if it was for something that might well become a disability issue later down the line.

MY employer would usually not count hospital days but visits to the dentist would require you to make the time up over the next month

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did they even ASK? first thing I would have done, they might well have been given the time off as discretionary

Nobody would have thought to ask at the time - these odd days wouldn't have been an issue after all even if they were logged wrongly. It's only when a large amount of time off is needed later on which could trigger a threshold it's causing a problem for people.

 

MY employer would usually not count hospital days but visits to the dentist would require you to make the time up over the next month

Not unreasonable if possible and productive. In some situations though it's not easy to 'make time up'. Requiring someone to sit at their desk for a couple of hours just for the sake of it wouldn't be of any use to anyone.

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Did the employee have the option to book holidayicon but chose another option? How exactly was the leave booked? Did they have available holiday days at the time?

I think (fairly sure) they would tell their line manager they'd be off that day and never even think to make a point of asking how it was booked on the system.

 

It does make sense for that person to check whether they used up their holiday entitlement for that period - something which is highly unlikely.

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well, clearly they are in warm water over this, if not hot water so although it may not be possible to undo what is done it makes sense to clarify the position for the future.

making up time is more than sitting at a desk in almost every job I have ever done and that includes working in factories on a shift system. making up time then would hve included the moving of stock around the factory, inventory, cleaning down etc, all stuff that would normally be doneinside usual working hours but by doing them as extra duties make the rest of the week more productive. Sometimes the willingness is enough and then you get the nod to go home without completing the necessary hours

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In which case those days should be clawed back by the company as overpayments? Forgive me for double checking but this could work to the benefit of the employee so are you absolutely sure? Employees tell their line manager why they won't be at work so booking the day as sick leave isn't done by the employee themselves - it will have been a mistake by line managers or HR.

Yes, quite sure. Sick leave is defined as a period of time that you are sick. It is important because sickness equally relates to SSP claims - not just occupational sick pay. It's a "right" that works in reverse - there is actually no right at all to time off for medical appointments of any kind. So technically the employer can refuse permission to be absent from work. But with hospital appointments, few employers would refuse because they understand that they cannot be scheduled in workers own time. So it is "made" into your time, either by not paying you or by your taking annual leave. Going to hospital is not an illness! A stay in hospital results from sickness, but it is the condition that is the sickness, not the hospital. The easiest way to differentiate is to say "would you otherwise be going to work on that day?" - if only the appointment is preventing you from going to work, you are clearly not sick!

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But, claiming sick pay for a hospital appointment when not sick could land up in a whole other bunch of problems. So please can you clarify exactly how the time off was booked and what was said; your opinion I am afraid is not robust enough.

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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Ps I also asked if the word discretionary was in the policy etc... may have missed it, did you reply?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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I'd have to check with the individual what exactly was said but I am pretty sure they'd just have told their line manager they needed to book a day off for a hospital appointment. They would have no reason to check (or even care at the time) how their line manager then entered it on a system. It wouldn't have crossed their minds for an instant to bother about anything but letting someone know.

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I'd have to check with the individual what exactly was said but I am pretty sure they'd just have told their line manager they needed to book a day off for a hospital appointment. They would have no reason to check (or even care at the time) how their line manager then entered it on a system. It wouldn't have crossed their minds for an instant to bother about anything but letting someone know.

 

Please do check, and also the precise policy wording. Third time of asking - is there a reason you are not answering please?

Never assume anyone on the internet is who they say they are. Only rely on advice from insured professionals you have paid for!

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