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    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
    • so a new powerless B2B debt DCA set up less than a month ago with a 99% success rate... operating on a NWNF basis , but charging £30 to set up your use of them. that's gonna last 5mins.... = SPAMMERS AND SCAMMERS. a DCA is NOT a BAILIFF and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt - no matter WHAT its type. dx      
    • Migrants are caught in China's manufacturing battles with the West, as Beijing tries to save its economy.View the full article
    • You could send an SAR to DCbl on the pretext that you are going for a breach of your GDPR . They should then send the purported letter of discontinuance which may show why it ended up in Gloucester and see if you can get your  costs back on the day. It obviously won't be much but  at least perhaps a small recompense for your wasted day. Not exactly wasted since you had a great win  albeit much sweeter if you had beat them in Court. But a win is a win so well done. We will miss you as it has been almost two years since you first started out on this mission. { I would n't be surprised if the wrong Court was down to DCBL}. I see you said "till the next time" but I am guessing you will be avoiding private patrolled car parks for a while.🙂
    • It is extremely disappointing that you haven't told us anything about the result of the hearing. You came here at the very last minute and the regulars - all unpaid volunteers - sweated blood trying to get an acceptable Witness Statement prepared in an extremely short time. The least you could have done is tell us how the hearing went, information invaluable for future users. Evidently not.
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Damage in work car park


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My car was damaged when leaving a parking space in my works car park.

 

I had pulled in forwards to a parking space, where the front of my car overhung the blocked paving.

No damaged occurred during the parking.

 

When reversing out to leave there was a huge crunch and the front of my car had caught on a piece of block paving sticking up and not flat to other blocks, ripping the side panel away from the front, at the corner of the car.

 

This happened when reversing and not parking as I had turned the wheel to angle out of the space when reversing and so the front of the car moved across a different part of the paving.

 

I had my car repaired through insurance and I am seeking reimbursement of the excess (£350) from the landlords of the property (not my employers) due to their negligence in keeping the car parking area in good repair.

 

Since notifying them of the damage and my request for a claim they have fixed the paving block and leveled it with the rest of the pavement.

I have pictures of all of this including the block before and after fixing.

 

The landlords are saying I parked at my own risk and they are not liable for any damage to cars, but there is no sign stating this anywhere in the car park.

They also say it is in the tenants handbook, which of course I have never seen.

 

If they continue to refuse I am thinking of taking it to the small claims court,

but I am looking for opinion on whether its worth it.

Does the Defective Premises Act 1972 come into this?

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When they say they are not responsible for damage, they are correct, as far as accidents and malicious damage.

However they are fully responsible for damage caused to your car by them not providing a safe environment for you to park.

Tell them you'll see them in court.

Send a LBA letter

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I disagree with sgtbush’s reasoning, even if I may end up not disagreeing with their conclusion ......

 

You were on the premises with permission, so the Occupiers Liability Act 1957 applies (rather than the 1984 act that is relevant to trespassers).

 

They can try to disclaim liability for damage to property (whereas they can’t disclaim liability for death or personal injury).

This is why I disagree with “they are fully responsible for damage caused to your car by them not providing a safe environment for you to park.” as in some circumstances they can disclaim liability for damage to property even if they haven’t provided a “safe environment”.

 

They’d have to show you knew (or, at least should have known) that they had disclaimed liability for damage to property.

If there weren’t signs up, and you weren’t in receipt of “the tenants handbook” you can’t willingly accept that risk, so their attempt to disclaim liability fails (as it would even if there were signs, for damages for death / personal injury).

So, you could claim for your non-recovered losses.

 

If there were signs (or “the reasonable person” would have known of the disclaimer to liability for property damage), then you wouldn’t have a claim for property damage even if they were negligent.

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Thanks for responses.

 

I asked my facilities manager for a copy of the tenants handbook and it has the following language in the car park section

 

- "No Liability is accepted by the Landlord or Managing Agents for the loss or damage at anytime.".

 

However the handbook was dated October 2017 (received in Microsoft Word format)

I asked for an older copy in case it did not have this statement in.

 

I was then sent a copy dated September 2017

 

I clarified I wanted a copy from before the incident (June) and my facilities manager said the September copy was the first they have ever received so there is no way I could have been given notice of this, including the fact there are no signs.

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Reply to the landlords saying that you'll proceed to claim, and will put them to strict proof that you know (or should have known) of their disclaimer of liability.

Take photo's of the car park (and its absence of signs).

 

With any luck they'll put signs up now (it's always good when they try to claim "they should have known!" and then you point out "If I, previously, should have known, why have you needed to put up new signs making it clearer?")

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All the signs in the world don't absolve them of their liability, there is no such thing as ''No Liability''.

Who ever heard of someone getting a job at the Jobcentre? The unemployed are sent there as penance for their sins, not to help them find work!

 

 

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All the signs in the world don't absolve them of their liability, there is no such thing as ''No Liability''.

 

If this is true (& it isn’t!) why does the Occupiers Liability Act 1957 differentiate between:

a) personal injury (including death), and

b) damage to property?

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If this is true (& it isn’t!) why does the Occupiers Liability Act 1957 differentiate between:

a) personal injury (including death), and

b) damage to property?

 

I have no idea, maybe you can tell us all?

Who ever heard of someone getting a job at the Jobcentre? The unemployed are sent there as penance for their sins, not to help them find work!

 

 

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I have no idea, maybe you can tell us all?

 

Because they can disclaim liability for damage to property!

They just can’t do so for personal injury (including death), [because the Occupiers Liability Act 1957 says so]

 

So, do you still believe:

All the signs in the world don't absolve them of their liability, there is no such thing as ''No Liability''.

 

They can say “no liability for damage to property”, or

“No liability except as prescribed at law”

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Now,

the OP's problem is that it appears he saw the hazard but decided to park there anyway.

This would mean that the landlords arguments about no liability disclaimers become irrelevant.

Same would apply if he hit a bollard.

 

For those with long memories perhaps you remember the matter of someone hitting a post entering a car park at a retail park when working as a delivery driver.

 

Not only did he not get any compensation for the damage to his vehicle he got done for driving without due care and lost his job if I recall correctly.

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  • 1 month later...

well done!

please don't hit Quote...just type we know what we said earlier..

DCA's view debtors as suckers, marks and mugs

NO DCA has ANY legal powers whatsoever on ANY debt no matter what it's Type

and they

are NOT and can NEVER  be BAILIFFS. even if a debt has been to court..

If everyone stopped blindly paying DCA's Tomorrow, their industry would collapse overnight... 

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