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    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
    • so a new powerless B2B debt DCA set up less than a month ago with a 99% success rate... operating on a NWNF basis , but charging £30 to set up your use of them. that's gonna last 5mins.... = SPAMMERS AND SCAMMERS. a DCA is NOT a BAILIFF and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt - no matter WHAT its type. dx      
    • Migrants are caught in China's manufacturing battles with the West, as Beijing tries to save its economy.View the full article
    • You could send an SAR to DCbl on the pretext that you are going for a breach of your GDPR . They should then send the purported letter of discontinuance which may show why it ended up in Gloucester and see if you can get your  costs back on the day. It obviously won't be much but  at least perhaps a small recompense for your wasted day. Not exactly wasted since you had a great win  albeit much sweeter if you had beat them in Court. But a win is a win so well done. We will miss you as it has been almost two years since you first started out on this mission. { I would n't be surprised if the wrong Court was down to DCBL}. I see you said "till the next time" but I am guessing you will be avoiding private patrolled car parks for a while.🙂
    • It is extremely disappointing that you haven't told us anything about the result of the hearing. You came here at the very last minute and the regulars - all unpaid volunteers - sweated blood trying to get an acceptable Witness Statement prepared in an extremely short time. The least you could have done is tell us how the hearing went, information invaluable for future users. Evidently not.
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House sold do i have to pay anything back to dwp?


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My brother due to mental illness has been on long term sick since 1989, DWP having been paying the interest on his mortage. He has now sold his house. Does anyone know if he has to pay back money to the DWP, there is a shortfall on his endowmentand he will come out with very little equity. If he has to pay back to DWP how can I be sure that he is being treated fairly, I would appreciate any guidance. Thank you all.


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He does not have to repay mortgage interest payments to the DWP, no.

 

If his equity is more than £16,000, it may affect any means-tested benefits he receives, although this is a complex area of the law.

 

On edit: I'm working here on the assumption that he's receiving Income Support, IB or ESA on the basis of inability to work, and that's why he's had MI payments made to his lender on his behalf. If this isn't the situation, you'd need to tell us a bit more - what benefits does he receive, for example?

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He does not have to repay mortgage interest payments to the DWP, no.

 

If his equity is more than £16,000, it may affect any means-tested benefits he receives, although this is a complex area of the law.

 

On edit: I'm working here on the assumption that he's receiving Income Support, IB or ESA on the basis of inability to work, and that's why he's had MI payments made to his lender on his behalf. If this isn't the situation, you'd need to tell us a bit more - what benefits does he receive, for example?

 

Thank you for replying so quickly to my thread.

 

My brother receives DLA. IB and income support. We sadly lost our mother earlier this year and she willed the house between her 4 children with the proviso that my brother could live there for as long as he wished, this is why he has has sold his house. After costs etc the equity from sale should be approx. £25,000. When the house was put on the market we enquired of DWP if anything had to be paid back but they would not commit to a % of pay back but certainly gave the impression that they would expect to be paid some of the equity.Any light you can throw on this grey area would so greatly received.

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My brother will not buy another house but will live in the house which my mother has left to us. Any idea what DWP will do about this?

 

His DLA won't be affected. There's something about the money being ignored for x months if the intention is to buy another house.
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If he's not buying another house then the DWP will probably treat his equity as capital. This won't affect DLA, but it would affect any means-tested benefits such as IS. A person with more than £16,000 in capital is not entitled to these benefits.

 

The mortgage interest payments made to his lender count as part of his benefit from the DWP point of view - they're not relevant to the situation and the DWP can't ask him to repay them.

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If the house is aleady sold, your brother needs to make a call to his benefit centre state that he has sold the propety and has capital of 25k after the sale.. The claim will then be suspended, he can also do a change of address, he will then be asked to send in copies of completion statements to include bank statement showing the date the money sale of the house went into the account. The claim will then close from the date the 25k went into his account. If he has been paid past this point then they may be a small over payment of I.S.

If he is in receipt if IB the capital will not effect this money and he will still receive this benefit.. But if he was IB credts then his benefit will cease as he would have been on full I.S.

The mortgage interest will not be recovered. This is the policy now :)

If he doesnt inform the dept and they keep paying the mortgage, this sometimes happens then they will be an overpayment and this will be raised.

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Thank you so much for this information, I have trawled the internet looking for the answer. Is this based on DWP latest policy? I assume so.

 

The capital limits for means-tested benefits are set by Parliament, not the DWP. The fact that the interest payments are not recoverable I'm less sure about - I mean, I know it's the case but I couldn't tell you if that's law or policy.

 

If you want to independently verify advice you get here (a wise idea - we do our best but we are fallible :wink: ) then a lot of the guidance to processors is available by searching the DWP website. Hint for this is to use google rather than the site's own search function. Go to the google homepage as type something like "site:dwp.gov.uk income support capital decision makers guide" (without quotes) and see how it goes. Searching the DWP site is annoying, but very often the information is there - buried under a ton of stuff you don't care about.

 

Edit: most other search engines offer a similar function if Google is not your preference.

Edited by antone

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