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    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
    • so a new powerless B2B debt DCA set up less than a month ago with a 99% success rate... operating on a NWNF basis , but charging £30 to set up your use of them. that's gonna last 5mins.... = SPAMMERS AND SCAMMERS. a DCA is NOT a BAILIFF and have  ZERO legal powers on ANY debt - no matter WHAT its type. dx      
    • Migrants are caught in China's manufacturing battles with the West, as Beijing tries to save its economy.View the full article
    • You could send an SAR to DCbl on the pretext that you are going for a breach of your GDPR . They should then send the purported letter of discontinuance which may show why it ended up in Gloucester and see if you can get your  costs back on the day. It obviously won't be much but  at least perhaps a small recompense for your wasted day. Not exactly wasted since you had a great win  albeit much sweeter if you had beat them in Court. But a win is a win so well done. We will miss you as it has been almost two years since you first started out on this mission. { I would n't be surprised if the wrong Court was down to DCBL}. I see you said "till the next time" but I am guessing you will be avoiding private patrolled car parks for a while.🙂
    • It is extremely disappointing that you haven't told us anything about the result of the hearing. You came here at the very last minute and the regulars - all unpaid volunteers - sweated blood trying to get an acceptable Witness Statement prepared in an extremely short time. The least you could have done is tell us how the hearing went, information invaluable for future users. Evidently not.
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Bank Holidays - Do I Have to Work? - ** accurate as of November 2015 **


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The subject of Bank Holiday working and the question of whether an employee is entitled to time off work on a Bank Holiday occurs frequently

Bank Holidays have no special status in employment law. There is no automatic right to a paid day off work, and whether you benefit or not will depend on your contract of employment rather than any legal right. An employer is only legally obliged to give an employee the minimum statutory paid holiday entitlement each year. Currently this amounts to 5.6 weeks holiday (or 28 days in the case of an employee working five days a week), and importantly this can include Bank Holidays. A contract of employment can give you more than this entitlement, but not less.

 

As to whether you are required to work on Bank Holidays will depend on your contract. You may, for example have a contract which specifies that you are not required to work on normal Bank Holidays (of which there are eight), and if this is the case then it is perfectly in order for the employer to not recognise an 'extra' Bank Holiday as a day off for staff, particularly where the business will operate as normal on that day. If however your contract is less specific and does not require you to work on Bank Holidays (ie without specifying whether these are the 'normal' Bank Holidays or 'special' ones), then you might reasonably expect not to have to work on that day. Sadly if you do have to work, then the employer is not obliged to pay you more money, or give you time off in lieu, unless again, there is a clause in the contract which specifies enhanced pay or compensatory time off for working on a Bank Holiday.

 

It is also worth remembering that a contract need not necessarily be in writing, as depending what is 'the norm' for the organisation, an entitlement can be built up through Custom and Practice, or by what entitlements are given to other staff in the organisation.

 

The starting point in answering the inevitable 'can they do this' question will always be the terms in the contract, or what is customary for the business in the absence of a specific clause. A good employer will discuss the matter with the workforce so that everybody knows what is happening, and who is affected.

 

The following sites have some useful information relating to Bank Holidays:-

 

http://www.direct.gov.uk/en/Governmentcitizensandrights/LivingintheUK/DG_073741

http://www.direct.gov.uk/en/Employment/Employees/Timeoffandholidays/DG_10029788

http://www.adviceguide.org.uk/index/life/employment/faq_index_employment/faq_employment_entitlement_to_bank_holidays.htm

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

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Nice stuff SW.

 

ACAS has (or indeed had as right this minute it doesn't see to be working!) some specific guidance on this 'extra royal bank holiday' this year.

 

http://www.acas.org.uk/index.aspx?articleid=3197

 

From what I recall when I read it, I for a nice change, agreed with ACAS and they basically made the point you make above;

 

i.e. it is basically a contractual matter, as the underlying legal right, the WTR will not be amended, and will still say 28 days for qualifying worker in one complete holiday year.

 

I see the argument as being the following - (in theroy);

 

a) What is the contractual definition of a BH for the purposes of MY contract of employment (written or otherwise), then,

 

b) Does the Government 'declaration' of the extra day (unsure how this has been made is this via delegated legislation or merely a Governmental 'aspiration'??); more likely the later me thinks; mean that such 'extra day' falls within the definition of a BH in your contract.

 

e.g. if your HR dep't were lazy and contract just said, "20 days per year + each BH' then I can see the argument that it should be given if it is within the contractual definition of a, 'BH' - especially when contra proferentum is applied. But;

 

c) assuming the above applies and boss says NO. Are you willing to push for this in the current economic climate?

 

d) even if you got it the next argument would be to look at what the exact wording of the contract is as regards payment of this 'special' BH holiday; as, again, this will be a BH outside the WTR - could it be even unpaid ???? an open question not a statement.

 

Surely in reality most ER's will be sensible? To avoid problems and bad publicity from Royalist media outlets they will give the day.

 

Be interesting to see if a substantial number of ET claims are made as a result?

 

Watch this space I suppose.

 

Che

...................................................................... [FONT=Comic Sans MS]Please post on a thread before sending a PM. My opinion's are not expressed as agent or representative of The Consumer Action Group. Always seek professional advice from a qualified legal adviser before acting. If I have helped you please feel free to click on the black star.[/FONT] [FONT=Comic Sans MS] I am sorry that work means I don't get into the Employment Forum as often as I would like these days, but nonetheless I'll try to pop in when I can.[/FONT] [FONT=Arial Black][FONT=Comic Sans MS][COLOR=Red]'Venceremos' :wink:[/COLOR][/FONT][/FONT]

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  • 3 weeks later...

i have signed a contract at work which entitles me to have 20 days paid holiday and bank holidays....it doesnt state eight bank holidays now this week my boss has said we have to work with no extra incentive ie day in leiu or extra cash is this right?myself and eight others are in the same boat!

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In that case your employer should have taken action to notify a variation of contract when the extra Bank Holiday was announced.

 

How far are you prepared to upset your boss? You need to raise a grievance and point out that your contract would seem to indicate that next Friday should be a paid day off and asking for an assurance that in the absence of compensatory pay that you will receive an additional day's leave at a later date.

Any advice given is done so on the assumption that recipients will also take professional advice where appropriate.

 

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  • 8 months later...

my employer has stated i do not have 'enough' hours to have bank holiday entitlement, despite my contract stating i have 8 paid hols, i work 39 hour week and have been told my hours are part time, some day shift, some night shift? but it is all complusary, i.e no option, so why cant i take my bank holidays, xmas day, boxing day and new years day (rota system so take in lieu)??

'rise like lions after slumber, in unvanquishable number, shake your chains to the earth like dew, which in sleep had fall'n on you, ye are many, they are few.' Percy Byshse Shelly 1819

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  • 11 months later...

queens diamond jubilee holiday-- my company added a days annual leave to everybody, great except that around half the workforce work shifts so really cant have a day added. can they give out extra holiday to office staff and hourly paid workers but not give the salaried/shiftworkers anything?

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