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    • Tangliss, if you can't upload the letter, could you tell us what the heading is please? My understanding is it should say 'Letter before claim' or similar. HB
    • Do you think I should send the CCA request now then instead of waiting? I really can do without the stress. Any advice would be appreciated. Thank you for responding.
    • How was the "receiver" appointed and what is their role? Appointed by the lender under the terms of their security on the loan (sometimes referred to as "LPA Receiver")? Or are they acting for you in insolveny? What's the current role of the agent?
    • Wait for more replies, but that letter to me can be interpreted as a letter before action. Ignoring it can have consequences. The court to impose sanctions for failure in responding to a letter of claim.
    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
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Code of Practice for Accurate Bills / Back Billing for Domestic Customers


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  • 6 months later...

"Under the Code, from 1 July 2007, where the suppliers are at fault in not billing a domestic

customer, they will not send a bill which includes unbilled energy consumed more than 1 year

previous to the bill being issued."

 

Can I clarify this applies in the situation where my energy supplier stopping billing for usage in error and only noticed after > 2 years? i.e. it was their fault for not billing but I didn't inform them of this and it was an audit by the energy company which identified the problem.

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The Code of Practice for Accurate Bills (the Code) has been developed by the Energy Retail Association (ERA) with British Gas (including Scottish Gas), EDF Energy, E.ON, npower and Scottish Power; these companies all support the independently-audited Code of Practice and are committed to the Code as a minimum standard of service for customers. Scottish and Southern Energy has a Domestic Customer Charter which includes similar standards of service in relation to billing and back billing. This document reflects the principles which all of the major energy suppliers apply in relation to back billing.

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Ok but Scottish Hydro Electric is not mentioned so am I to assume they DO NOT subscribe to this charter? Or do you know if they have specifically excluded themselves from this charter?

 

The reason for the question is that I have been back billed > 2 years by Scottish Hydro Electric as a result of their error in not billing me. I have been a customer of Scottish Hydro Electric at my address for the past 7 years when they suddenly stopped billing.

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  • 1 month later...

My situation is similar. i have been with npower for about a year now yet have never had a bill. Last July I called them asking when i would be billed. In short they had no answer and could only tell me that i was in debt to them. I am paying via a payment card at the rate of £50pm yet STILL receive no bills. They have called me twice, despite my paying on-the-dot of each month, more or less ordering me to pay £100pm, something which is just not affordable.

I have no idea how much is owed, how much is current, nothing, yet they have all my details correct re posting bills etc and they managed to post the card to me so I'm in a bit of a quandary here.

Any ideas or advice?

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  • 3 weeks later...

I have a similar problem with EDF. I moved house in October 2010 which was under Southern Electric. I then transferred to EDF in January 2011 and have yet to recieve a Gas Bill. I have made my complaint and i am being told that it is in the hands of a specialist team ( Load of BS if you ask me)..Am i correct in thinking that if i have not received a bill by January (12 months since joining EDF) i will not be liable to pay for any gas used that is more than 12 months old?Any help would be greatfull.Thanks,DGS

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I have finally recieved a gas Bill from EDF energy.. Shocked is not the word... £800 Gas Bill from 4th Jan to 16th Nov!!The booklet i received when joining EDF said my gas charges were a daily charge of 23.07pence per day and a usage cost of 3.08per Unit (Kwh). i took this as my meter cost per unit of gas used as being 3.08 pence, i.e 10 units= 38p / 100unit =£3.80 etc etc . My bill shows the total units used as 2640 and it says this equals over 28000 Kwh................The code of practice says that they should provide clear and understanding bills.. My bill does not show or explain how this calculation is worked out nor does any of my paperwork say that this calculation even exists.. Anyone any advice on what to do regarding a dispute.?ThanksDGS

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  • 2 months later...
  • 1 month later...

I'm not convinced you would have this removed. Yes you're right in relation to the fact if they haven't charged you after a year it has to be wiped off for domestic users (not businesses) but that's if you've made every effort to ensure they have read the meter and asked them about paying the bill. If you've said nothing I think you'd be on dodgy grounds. Those that have attempted should be fine.

 

@ don't get shafted it should deffo be on the bill somewhere.

 

Electricity is easy. Just multiply the units used by the tariff prices (there may be more than one).

Gas is more tricky. Don't have the figures in front of me but from memory it's the following:

 

your units used (since your last bill) multiplied by 2.83 (roughly) X 1.022640 (roughly) x (the calorific factor roughly about 39 ish) ALL divided by 3.6.

 

2.83 is to convert to metric (if it isn't already).

1.022640 is for the temp and pressure variations.

calorific factor is kinda how good the energy is and is usually from say 38 - 43.

3.6 is to convert from seconds into kwh (once all the other factors are worked out).

 

Sorry this is a bit tricky. Once you've had a few goes at it. it/s not too bad. I had big problems with Npower so I looked into it and found it's not that hard really.

 

The only figures that change above really are the number of units used and the calorific value. (and maybes if you're using a metric meter).

 

Best bet is too google Gas conversion factors and there's probably a calculator site that will work it out.

 

The companies quite often get it wrong. Even basic stuff. So don't be afraid to challenge them if you think it's wrong.

 

Later on they also wanted to charge me about £7 in VAT. My bill was for about £95 + VAT.

As VAT is 5% on fuel the vat should have been about say £4.50 not £7. I explained that as it's only 5% that if I'd used £100 it should be £5 for VAT. As I'd used less than £100 it must be less but they were adamant it was £7. Eventually got this and many other basic errors sorted and got compensation too. Result. :)

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  • 2 months later...

what happends when you find out you have been paying somebody elses bill i was paying 35 pound a month for a year just noticed it phoned them up and it turns out i have been paying someone elses bill he even phoned up and told edf (please note i dont know him and he lives 300 miles away) but nothing was done till i noticed it this morning, they have refunded me the money but i asked for compensation since it was there fault they are rining me back in the morning how much do you think i should go for,

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what happends when you find out you have been paying somebody elses bill i was paying 35 pound a month for a year just noticed it phoned them up and it turns out i have been paying someone elses bill he even phoned up and told edf (please note i dont know him and he lives 300 miles away) but nothing was done till i noticed it this morning, they have refunded me the money but i asked for compensation since it was there fault they are rining me back in the morning how much do you think i should go for,

 

Who is your provider?

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I was hoping it was one of the utility companies that have a Rep on CAG.

 

If the money they've refunded was in excess of your normal bill you should have had 8% statutory interest as well.

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  • 2 years later...

 

I have this and took it to court with Npower. They simply disregard this as they do every other directive. The worrying thing is that if I did this in my proffession (ignored our code of conduct) I would be instantly dismissed from my organisation and be bankrupt. Why does this continue for energy companies?

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This thread is 2years+ old.

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Well my action was two years ago. Still waiting for compensation. The 'back billing' directive was simply ignored. Its parr for the course really. Basically energy companies are not challenged and if you don't like it you can complain but then you'll get a hasty tax bill (as director moves to become director of Inland Revenue) very strange practice that is the reason why I am leaving this country.

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  • 1 month later...

Its all very well posters saying the "code" enables you to do this and that but who is the body that ENFORCES THE CODE OF ACCURATE BILLING for an individual domestic customer????? In my view the unenforceable "code" is not worth a carrot.

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