Certainly will dx100uk. As I've said, I am new to this site and am very impressed with the help I've had. Thank you again. I'll keep in touch either way.

Hi dx100uk Sure I understand that. I was under the impression that you should never ignore the letters, so that's interesting to know. I'll now leave it to them to take court action and then follow the SB line. Thank you again

You're right dx100uk, too much worrying on my part. I just don't trust these weasels. Thank you

Hello, Just need some opinions about the 1st credit issue that I posted. It’s a bit subtle, but here goes. So, if I need to defend this as statute barred and then they show the judge their 'evidence', is the 'evidence' irrelevant at that point, as I have not said it is sufficient, nor have I verified the claim Hope that makes sense. Many thanks:|

Again thank you - really helpful and reassuring

Thank you bankfodder for that information - really useful!

Hello, I am new to this site and need help on the following – I know it is not legal advice just educated opinions, but any help would be great. This refers to a disputed credit card debt (Halifax/BOS) that was defaulted back in January 2012 (over 6 years ago). In September 2014 the debt was sold on to a debt collection company (1st Credit). I wrote to the debt collection company back then with the following statement: Should you provide sufficient evidence that I owe your organisation or your client any outstanding amount and that you can provide proof that they have assigned you agency, I should be happy to pay any verified claim in full. I have continuously asked for proof of debt between then and now. They have sent me information, but has does not included all of the information I have asked for. They wrote back in February 2018, after the 6 year statute barred period and have stated that they consider the statute barred period has not ended because of what I wrote to them (in 2014) (in italics above) is acknowledgement of debt.They have said that they have provided the ‘evidence’ and that I had said that if they had done that I would pay. This is not what I wrote means, and I think they are trying to mislead me. I meant that if they provide sufficient evidence – but what they have provided is insufficient in my view and this has never be put before a judge to decide. Are they right or is this now statute barred? I know you don’t have the complete information from the last 6 years, but some opinions would be greatly appreciated. s I have already mentioned I have never acknowledged or made any payment to this debt within the last 6 years. Thank you