Hi all, After more great advice on top of what I have already received from here. First issue: I sent a bog standard prove it letter to BPO Collections this month (using template from either here or National debt line). Apparently they now own a debt from Motormile Finance/Lantern. I think I took a payday loan out in 2011/12 with CFO, who went bust, debts purchased by Motormile, who changed names to Lantern, who have assigned this to BPO. It becomes very confusing to keep track of name changes and who owns who. The letter I received back states (amongst the usual twaddle): What should be my next step? they are refusing the prove anything if I'm reading that right. I've checked my credit file (3 different agencies) and if there was anything on there from CFO/Motormile/Lantern/BPO it isn't on there anymore. I don't ever recall paying anything to any of these companies or speaking to them. Second issue: I sent a Statue Barred letter to BW Legal in regards to a PRAC/PayDayLoans debt. Again it was from a template from either here or the National Debt Line. They have replied back with the following: Followed by the usual how to pay stuff. Firstly, they have the dates wrong as my credit file states that it was started on 10/01/2012 and the default registered 1/7/2012. Secondly they already sent a letter of claim for court action in November last year but never followed it up (I foolishly didn't reply at the time due to ignorance on my behalf). I haven't paid a bean or acknowledged debt. So this is statue barred right? How should I respond or should I even bother? I'd like to put something to them that draws the matter to a close, but I thought the SB letter was meant to do that? Thanking you in advance.

Ok. So send them the statue barred letter as I’m pretty much 100% certain this debt now is. This should stop any court proceedings. As I guess by what you said in post 6, by not telling them at all, they will still go to court and it could still go through if I don’t do anything about it?

Well I believe a debt becomes statue barred if 6 years have passed from the last date of cause of action. When it becomes statue barred, it still exists but prevents court action being taken to recover the debt? So in this case, as I made no payment to the debt and made no contact the cause of action date will be the date of the first payment. Which I believe was a month after the start date. Roughly end of Jan/start of Feb 2012. This means statue barred date Jan/Feb 2018. I received the letter of claim in Oct 2017 and had till end of Nov 2017 to reply. I didn’t (as I didn’t understand what it was at the time) reply. This was still within the 6 years. How we since then I’ve heard nothing else. So I’m hoping that they didn’t get the CCJ paperwork to the court in time before it became statue barred otherwise I imagine I would have heard something by now? 5-6 months after the letter of claim? As I believe that as long as court action is started within the 6 years, it stops the debt from becoming statue barred? That is what I’m asking, the letter of claim doesn’t count as start of court action? Only when I get a court date and official court paperwork I guess?

So it can become statue barred right up until the court date is issued?

Does a letter of claim not mark the start of court proceedings? I know they have 6 years to get a CCJ before it become statue barred but what is the point they need to get to in that time? Do they need to have a court date for example? Does that make sense?

Hi all, Some help and advice would be amazing on this! I have a defaulted payday loan with Instant Cash/PayDay Uk which is now owned by Prac/BW Legal. The account started on 10/01/2012 and the default occurred on 1/7/2012. I did not make a payment at all towards this or respond to any letters or phone calls. As you can see this debt is very close to being statue barred, if not already. I went through some old documents and discovered a letter of claim from Prac/BW Legal for this debt. This was sent to my current address (which was different from the address on the account, so they know where I am) on 24/10/17 with a reply needed by 28/11/17. I foolishly put this in with the other few letters I have received over the months which I assumed were bog standard debt letters. I did not reply to this in any way. Where do I stand? I havent heard anything since. Nothing from the court. Nothing on my credit file and its 6-7 months past the deadline set by the letter? What should I do? What I'm hoping is that they missed the chance to get it to the court before it became statue barred? As, if I'm right in my thinking I never made a contractual payment then the 'cause of action' would be the first missed payment, and the debt becomes statute barred 6 years after that. Which would be around the Jan/Feb time of 2018? Thanks all

That's what I thought. I gave all the details of the idiot who hit insurance, including his policy number etc to Lloyds. Surely that's enough? Surely they should have contacted his insurers to sort all this?

Hi all, So a bit of a story so I'll try to summarise whilst keeping main points. Kuga on 3 year finance from Ford. Finance and V5 in parents name. Car Reg date 30th June 2015. Myself as main driver and policy holder. Policy through Lloyds (Covea underwriter). GAP not taken as policy has New for Old for vehicles less than 1 year old. Drunk driver (who has now been prosecuted) crashed into my parked car, writing it off on 11th June. He was fully insured Lloyds collect car, deem it right-off and pass to underwriter to handle. Covea collect car from them and confirm write off. So here are my concerns/questions that I'm hoping for some advice on. Firstly, Covea have offered me a settlement of £1150. Yep for a 1 year old vehicle, with less than 15K on the clock. Surely this must be a mistake yes? Covea are also charging me my excess? Surely as I'm not at fault I shouldn't be charged this? Only after all this has happened I realised I have made an error, and put on the policy that I am registered keeper on V5 and not my parent. Should I be worried that they now won't pay out. Everything else is 100% correct. Lastly, I am due to go to France in 2 weeks. I am driving down. Lloyds (through enterprise) have provided the courtesy car but have said I'll need to pay in the region of £300 to take the car abroad. Should I be expected to pay this? What are my options? As you can see it's a bit of a cluster****. Due to it not being my fault (I was sat on my couch!) if it all goes tits up and I end up having outstanding finance or having to pay to take the courtesy abroad would I have much chance claiming through small claims court against the idiot who caused all this? Any help, just even to put my mind at ease would be appreciated. Thanks all