Thank you again for the reply To be honest, I am unsure how much charges have been applied - As a rough guess I would say about £300

Thank you for the quick reply At what stage does it become harassment? An email is essentially the same as a letter - Sending over 10 a month has to be harassment, imagine receiving 10 letters in the post a month from them

Im not sure of the full procedure of the redress but what happened to me was I had a loan with them and didnt pay it back - I applied for a loan with another company (turned out to be a sister company) and they used my bank details I put in on the sister company site to take a months wages to pay of the loan with cash genie - sneaky I had £732 refund last week.

I had a payday loan about 4.5 years ago when I was in a bit of a rut and didnt end up paying it back. The past few months they have bombarded me with emails to pay it back, around 61 emails to be precise - I have emailed them 3 times advising they are no longer to send me emails but they continue to do so and even replied to my email saying they will email for as long as the money is owed. I am sure I read somewhere that if you request a stop to call or any emails they have to by law comply - Is this right? I have even put them on notice that should they continue to send emails that I will charge then £15 for every email they have sent me - They has since sent me another 7 emails since that warning Where do I stand on this?

I have checked my credit file today and noticed something I am not sure if affecting me twice or not. I have an account that states it is in default, but the status of the account is closed this has then been sold to a DCA and they have put a default on the account as well. Default Info 1: Default Balance: £805 Default Date: 13 April 2010 Default Satisfied Date: 19 June 2012 Default Info 2 Default Date: 13 April 2010 Default Satisfied Date: Not Satisfied Am I right in viewing this as 2 defaults for 1 debt? If so, is it allowed? Thanks in advance

I find that very confusing - They can send a any agreement to anyone and call it a recon then the person is liable, are they not? So where do I stand now with what they have sent me?

Thanks for the help A recon since 2007 is ok? What makes them OK if they dont contain a persons signature? I dont have my copy of the original agreement, but can only assume the dates are correct

Well I actually fell out with the guy on his first visit and I refused to pay him again unless someone else came for collection of the money, nobody ever came back and that was in 2009. I have started to receive these letters so sent the CCA request Lowell have replied showing the reconstituted version (one thats not signed and essentially not original) - Surely this has no legal standing? and there is a statute barred letter to send them now?

The loan was received - There was another piece of paper but that was just the terms and conditions. No area to sign etc.

Below is the letter from the DCA Lowell: And this is the CCA they sent me, you will see that I have blanked out my personal details, and you will also notice the signature box is blank.

I started receiving letters from a collection agency for a loan taken out in 2009 This loan defaulted hence the letter from the DCA. I sent a CCA request which I received today and the agreement has not been signed What is the next step? I believe there is a template letter for me to send but I can not remember where to find it Thanks in advance

I have a weird problem I took out vehicle finance with a company (no names yet if thats OK) There were a few things I was not happy about and just before having it for 1 year the finance company agreed to take the vehicle off me and not chase me for any outstanding balance. My questions is this - They agreed to take the vehicle back and not chase anything outstanding, but my credit file is showing a default and £12k outstanding. This cant be right, surely? - Also the finance agreement was a joint agreement with me and my partner, yet only I signed for it. Shouldn't it have to be signed by both parties to make it legally binding anyway, and as it wasn't signed by both then technically shouldn't go on my credit file at all? Thanks in advance

Well I have had problems with the car since having it - such as the key does not work efficiently, there is pre-existing damage that was not shown to me and the car does not have a sat-nav as I asked for The car was in joint names of me and my partner but they only asked me to sign the contract Not sure of my intention yet, but just looking to see if the contract would be enforceable if my partner didn't sign it at all. I had to sign about 10 pieces of paper, and she didn't sign a single one Just trying to work out my rights at this stage I entered the contract in August

I bought a vehicle from an company online (I wont name them) they delivered it down from Essex to my area, before delivery they said I would have to sign for the car on licensed property such as another car dealer. I'm guessing this is because I got the vehicle on finance? they messed me about I took a day off work and they didnt show up, they delivered it the next day to my house directly and said 'keep it between us' - Yeah very strange. Just want your thoughts on this? the finance was taken out in my name and my partner, the finance agreement has both our names on it but only I signed it they didnt even ask her to sign, does that make the finance agreement void? Thanks in advance

A friend of mine bought a car recently from a very reputable firm After buying the car it broke down within 24 hours, he has then found out that the car was in a previous accident (not recorded) Its a 59 plate Fiesta by the way In fairness the garage took it back and replaced the head gasket, water pumps, cam belts and radiator The problem is the bonnet is still unaligned as well as front bumper slightly off too They said he can pick a replacement car, but how about cancelling everything, can he do that? he took the car on finance through them Thank in advance