If they don’t talk to the DCA, how can they set up any payment plan to clear it off? Who do they talk to? Apparently littlewoods just put the phone down when he tried talking to them.

I can’t go into many specifics, as it’s not me personally involved. I have just been asked advice on a situation. It’s a straightforward question really. My neighbour had an account with Littlewoods, they hit financial trouble and the account went into arrears. They arranged a payment plan and were paying. Suddenly they are contacted by a DCA who has bought the debt and Littlewoods will no longer discuss it. I’m unaware of any notice they intended to pass on the debt, just a phone call out of the blue today. Is this all legal and above board? I was asked, and to my knowledge, I’ve said they shouldn’t have passed it on a) while it was paid and b) without notice. Now I’m second guessing myself! If there’s something dodgy, what can be done about it now? Anyone know the correct procedure here? Thanks

It’s unclear if it would be, PayPal Credits faqs are vague at best and extremely limited. They aren’t really helpful in any sense, and the call centre acknowledge this and admit they’ve had a lot of ‘feedback’ to that effect. They say they’re planning to rectify this soon...

After a thoroughly confusing conversation with PayPal... It seems that if you return items in conjunction with their disputes system it works one way (clearing the transaction and refunded interest if successful) While if you go to the vendor it works another way (refunded amount applied to outstanding transactions in preferential order with highest interest items first and no refund on interest) They are going to open an escalation for me to look at both refunding interest and reducing the rate of interest on the refunded item to zero for remaining payments. No guarantees it will happen. Some of their policies, especially the allocation of payments for non minimum payments, are extremely difficult to track down. I haven’t actually found them on the website at all. It’s very unclear on most things to be honest.

Being unable to work and constantly juggling money means yes, even a couple of quid makes a difference some weeks! I know to someone working full time on however much a year it may not, to me it does. So please could you tell me who I should be asking for it and what I should be asking for. Preferably in simple terms

The refund has officially gone on to the PayPal credit balance, so I now need to know what the correct process is with regard to items that are refunded when paid for on credit. Yes, I can ask PayPal, but from experience they don’t always have any clue themselves about correct procedures. I’d rather have a clue in advance as to if I should be asking, for example, to make a section 75 to class back the interest or if I am not entitled to any refund of interest or whatever the case may be. I realise nobody may know the answer on here, but if anyone can tell me who would be able to answer I’d appreciate that too.

Yes, I’ve had three or four other things, which is why I think the refund has gone straight onto that. The outstanding balance has dropped by around the same amount as the refund

Hi, First, sorry if I’m in the wrong place. I’m not sure if this should be here or on the retail or legal forums. Second, I’m mainly after information and can’t seem to find anything clear anywhere else to answer this question. The situation is this... End of August last year I purchased a tablet type thing from the Argos Outlet on EBay. It cost £140 or thereabouts, and I paid for it using PayPal Credit (I actually opened the PayPal Credit account during the purchase, so this was the first transaction). The payments were to be spread over a year at something like 12.9% APR Recently the tablet went wrong and was returned to Argos, who have processed and provided a full refund on the initial purchase price. That refund appears to have gone directly to my PayPal credit account, as opposed to my standard PayPal account (it hasn’t yet cleared properly). So, my questions are these... Should interest be refunded, as the purchase was effectively cancelled during the credit agreement? If so, by whom? Should the entire transaction become void, with no interest, and payments reallocated to other items now on my PayPal Credit account? Do I need to make a section 75 claim, does that even cover PayPal Credit? Does the credit agreement just continue until paid, including interest, and the refund just get allocated as a normal payment? I admit to being fully in the dark about how this is supposed to work, especially with PayPal Credit, because it seems it’s in a vague area legal wise. I can’t find anything definitive on the Internet, although I may have missed something by not asking the right question. I also will say again, the refund hasn’t fully cleared so I may be jumping the gun a little, but I’d like to be clear on what should happen so I know if it’s been done correctly or if I need to make a section 75 or do something else. Thanks for helping in advance Rich

In theory, yes, some legal professional would be an option. I'm not sure who has the power to have that meeting, given the lady herself is 92 and I honestly don't know if she has capacity for it (in a physical or mental sense). If she doesn't, does the discussion need a power of attorney or can it be held informally initially by the relative (which I think is a nephew) who she plans on leaving the property to? Yes, I know that any action would likely require either the lady or power of attorney passed to someone to go forward, but is that required for just advice? Or would a better option be for the lady to deed the house to her chosen relative (or share of, you know what I mean) and then for him to sort it out? Would it make a difference which way as far as any legal things go?

But they really have intentionally run off, it's one of the few things I know for definite. I don't understand why that makes no difference. I also repeat, this is on behalf of someone else, I have no stake whatsoever in it. Please do not ever tell me what I should or shouldn't think, I don't like it. If you want me to change a belief or opinion, then please give me a reasoned argument. Otherwise it doesn't help.

If the answer to the question is to get professional legal advice then that's fair enough. I know there are people on here with legal knowledge so it was an offchance that someone could help.

I should explain, I'm autistic and some of the posts read to me as quite nasty, as though I'm being blamed for suggesting that this person isn't entitled to a share and so on. I need to have all the information I can get to be able to pass it on, I know I'm anticipating not finding this person but I'd say they made their intent known by vanishing in the first place. Apparently efforts have been made to trace, but how messy does it get if they can't be traced? Or is it end of the line in that case and this property just sits there? That's the bit I'm trying to get an answer on.

which still isn't telling me what the situation is as this person is vanished for ten or more years. Does it mean no sale full stop? Sale but funds in trust? That's where the problem is. Is there anything legally on how far/what effort has to be made? I'm assuming when the lady passes on in future that there will be a will and so on, but what if this missing relative doesn't turn up then. It's all very well people saying they are entitled and getting uppity about it, but they aren't telling me how to find them or what happens if they can't be found (or are themselves deceased). It's a messy situation I know that. I'm trying to find an answer for someone else so I wish people would understand that instead of having a go at me for doing a favour for someone by asking about this.

Which leaves a problem as that person can't be found and hasn't been heard from in years. So the house can't sell. Or can it sell and the money held in trust, or some other option? Why do people keeps saying it's like selling or that some deserves something for their money? They haven't put money in, bought, paid mortgage, lived in or otherwise given anything in exchange for the property. That is a serious question, because I don't think it's the same. I completely agree, if someone paid then they deserve a share. In this case they didn't (I've checked) and were just listed. To me that's a very different thing.

Err no, please don't assume. You have leapt to completely the wrong conclusion and your idea is quite offensive. As I stated in the original post the missing relative has not (to my knowledge) paid towards or otherwise funded the costs of the property. They were granted part ownership by the original owner for whatever reason in the past but now that original owner would like to rescind that.