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    • Tangliss, if you can't upload the letter, could you tell us what the heading is please? My understanding is it should say 'Letter before claim' or similar. HB
    • Do you think I should send the CCA request now then instead of waiting? I really can do without the stress. Any advice would be appreciated. Thank you for responding.
    • How was the "receiver" appointed and what is their role? Appointed by the lender under the terms of their security on the loan (sometimes referred to as "LPA Receiver")? Or are they acting for you in insolveny? What's the current role of the agent?
    • Wait for more replies, but that letter to me can be interpreted as a letter before action. Ignoring it can have consequences. The court to impose sanctions for failure in responding to a letter of claim.
    • I'm still pondering/ trying to find docs re the above issue. Moving on - same saga; different issue I'm trying to understand what I can do: The lender/ mortgagee-in-possession has a claim v me for alleged debt. But the debt has only been incurred due to them failing to sell property in >5y. I'm fighting them on this.   I've been trying to get an order for sale for 2y.  I got it legally added into my counterclaim - but that will only be dealt with at trial.  This is really frustrating. The otherside's lawyers made an application to adjourn trial for a few more months - allegedly wanting to try sort some kind of settlement with me and to use the stay to sell.  At the hearing I asked Judge to expedite the order for sale. I pointed out they need a court-imposed deadline or this adjournment is just another time wasting tactic (with interest still accruing) as they have no buyer.  But the judge said he could legally only deal with the order at trial. The otherside don't want to be forced to sell the property.. Disclosure has presented so many emails which prove they want to keep it. I raised some points with the judge including misconduct of the receiver. The judge suggested I may have a separate claim against the receiver?   On this point - earlier paid-for lawyers said my counterclaim should be directed at the lender for interference with the receiver and the lender should be held responsible for the receiver's actions/ inactions.   I don't clearly understand that, but their legal advice was something to do with the role a receiver has acting as an agent for a borrower which makes it hard for a borrower to make a claim against a receiver ???.  However the judge's comment has got me thinking.  He made it clear the current claim is lender v me - it's not receiver v me.  Yet it is the receiver who is appointed to sell the property. (The receiver is mentioned/ involved in my counterclaim only from the lender collusion/ interference perspective).  So would I be able to make a separate application for an order for sale against the receiver?  Disclosure shows receiver has constantly rejected offers. He gave a contract to one buyer 4y ago. But colluded with the lender's lawyer to withdraw the contract after 2w to instead give it to the ceo of the lender (his own ltd co) (using same lawyer).  Emails show it was their joint strategy for lender/ ceo to keep the property.  The receiver didn't put the ceo under any pressure to exchange quickly.  After 1 month they all colluded again to follow a very destructive path - to gut the property.  My account was apparently switched into a "different fund" to "enable them to do works" (probably something to do with the ceo as he switched his ltd co accountant to in-house).   Interestingly the receiver told lender not to incur significant works costs and to hold interest.  The costs were huge (added to my account) and interest was not held.   The receiver rejected a good offer put forward by me 1.5y ago.  And he rejected a high offer 1y ago - to the dismay of the agent.  Would reasons like this be good enough to make a separate application to the court against the receiver for an order for sale ??  Or due to the main proceedings and/or the weird relationship a borrower has with a receiver I cannot ?
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I recorded meeting without permission!


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I had a meeting with my boss, and I digitally recorded the meeting without his permission. During the meeting he made comments that are in direct contravention of the Disability Discrimination Act. I am disabled and found his comments quite offensive.

 

I have raised this as a grievance issue with his line manager, I have told him that I made a recording (in case he tries to deny the comments), and gave a transcript of part of the meeting to his boss. He has been suspended pending investigation. I have been told by my union rep that he will not be dismissed.

 

Now the company is making a big issue about me recording the meeting without permission. There is no company policy on recording calls (bet there soon will be though!).

 

Have I breached any law? Can the company make an issue out of the recording without there being a company ploicy on it?

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Hello there and well done for recording. I don't know of any law on this, but I do know that it's often mentioned on the forum and that an Employment Tribunal will accept a transcript in evidence. I think I'm right about that anyway, hope someone else will comment.

 

If you need further advice apart from us caggers, don't forget the EHRC [equality and human rights people].

 

My best, HB

Illegitimi non carborundum

 

 

 

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I had a meeting with my boss, and I digitally recorded the meeting without his permission. During the meeting he made comments that are in direct contravention of the Disability Discrimination Act. I am disabled and found his comments quite offensive.

 

I have raised this as a grievance issue with his line manager, I have told him that I made a recording (in case he tries to deny the comments), and gave a transcript of part of the meeting to his boss. He has been suspended pending investigation. I have been told by my union rep that he will not be dismissed.

 

Now the company is making a big issue about me recording the meeting without permission. There is no company policy on recording calls (bet there soon will be though!).

 

Have I breached any law? Can the company make an issue out of the recording without there being a company ploicy on it?

 

You did nothing wrong (& don't let anyone say you did) the media does it all the time However before you can use it you MUST allow them the opportunity to respond. Then again if the recording reveals illegal or unlawful conduct they haven't got a hope in hell of stopping you disclosing it AND if 'illegal' you have a requirement to report it

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Now the company is making a big issue about me recording the meeting without permission.

 

Have I breached any law? Can the company make an issue out of the recording without there being a company ploicy on it?

 

 

Hi got no money........ Have a look at section 55 of the DDA 1995 http://www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts1995/ukpga_19950050_en_8#pt7-l1g55 I would say that if the company "made an issue" in regard to you for raising a grievance against this person then they would then be victimising you. A grievance is the first stage in a process that has the potential to end up in the Employment Tribunal. So if they start investigating you then I would put in a grievance that they have victimised you in your raising the issue against your manager.

 

Have you legal protection insurance for employment disputes, if not get one quickly before this escalates. The indication from your union does not bode well I fear. Unions are notorious for not helping in these circumstances and themselves are guilty of discrimination against their own policies.

 

What kind of organisation are you in? Government department, PLC, Private company?

 

What exactly is your disability and the nature of what was said?

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thanks for all your comments. In answer to your questions papasmurf- I work for a large well known charity! I use a wheelchair. The comment made was 'every time I see you in your wheelchair i feel like pushing it over'. There is a fair bit of history between me and my boss. A few months ago I reported him for swearing in front of a group of children.

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Hi got no money,

 

I recorded a disciplinary meeting with my former employer last year. I placed the recorder on the table so they knew I was doing it as well. They kicked up all kinds of stink about it afterwards, noted in the minutes that I had recorded the meeting "without permission". When I asked where there was any where legally or in the staff handbook that says I couldn't record it, of course they couldn't come up with anything.

 

Don't let them tell you its wrong. Its not. And if they had nothing to hide they wouldn't be worried about it in the first place.

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If your boss were not to be dismissed then you would have ample grounds to refuse to work with him in future on the grounds of proven threatening behaviour. To force you to do so could result in a very uncomfortable session in front of an Employment Tribunal.

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