My experience is with defaults in general and not specifically with
RBS
. Can i presume that the default was issued and then charges continued to accrue until they reached the 4210 mark? And also was the 2700 made up of charges, or at least parrtially?
If so then the claim i would issue would include the removal of the default in any settlement offer made, otherwise i would reject any offer even for the full amount unless this was included.
When the banks settle they usually call it a "
gesture of goodwill
".
This means they arent accepting liability or admitting they have done anything wrong so simply accepting the cash does not give you any proof to later take to court.
What are the circumstances surrounding the default?
Did you get a default notice?
Did you get the default notice within 3 to 6 months of last payments?
Do you think you should have been defaulted?
As much info as poss helps enormously.
Martin