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    • Euro have got a lot wrong and have failed to comply with the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 Schedule 4.  According to Section 13 after ECP have written to Arval they should then send a NTH to the Hirer  which they have done.This eliminates Arval from any further pursuit by ECP. When they wrote to your company they should have sent copies of everything that they asked Arval for. This is to prove that your company agree what happened on the day of the breach. If ECP then comply with the Act they are allowed to pursue the hirer. If they fail, to comply they cannot make the hirer pay. They can pursue until they are blue in the face but the Hirer is not lawfully required to pay them and if it went to Court ECP would lose. Your company could say who was driving but the only person that can be pursued is the Hirer, there does not appear to be an extension for a driver to be pursued. Even if there was, because ECP have failed miserably to comply with the Act  they still have no chance of winning in Court. Here are the relevant Hire sections from the Act below.
    • Thank-you FTMDave for your feedback. May I take this opportunity to say that after reading numerous threads to which you are a contributor, I have great admiration for you. You really do go above and beyond in your efforts to help other people. The time you put in to help, in particular with witness statements is incredible. I am also impressed by the way in which you will defer to others with more experience should there be a particular point that you are not 100% clear on and return with answers or advice that you have sought. I wish I had the ability to help others as you do. There is another forum expert that I must also thank for his time and patience answering my questions and allowing me to come to a “penny drops” moment on one particular issue. I believe he has helped me immensely to understand and to strengthen my own case. I shall not mention who it is here at the moment just in case he would rather I didn't but I greatly appreciate the time he took working through that issue with me. I spent 20+ years of working in an industry that rules and regulations had to be strictly adhered to, indeed, exams had to be taken in order that one had to become qualified in those rules and regulations in order to carry out the duties of the post. In a way, such things as PoFA 2012 are rules and regulations that are not completely alien to me. It has been very enjoyable for me to learn these regulations and the law surrounding them. I wish I had found this forum years ago. I admit that perhaps I had been too keen to express my opinions given that I am still in the learning process. After a suitable period in this industry I became Qualified to teach the rules and regulations and I always said to those I taught that there is no such thing as a stupid question. If opinions, theories and observations are put forward, discussion can take place and as long as the result is that the student is able to clearly see where they went wrong and got to that moment where the penny drops then that is a valuable learning experience. No matter how experienced one is, there is always something to learn and if I did not know the answer to a question, I would say, I don't know the answer to that question but I will go and find out what the answer is. In any posts I have made, I have stated, “unless I am wrong” or “as far as I can see” awaiting a response telling me what I got wrong, if it was wrong. If I am wrong I am only too happy to admit it and take it as a valuable learning experience. I take the point that perhaps I should not post on other peoples threads and I shall refrain from doing so going forward. 🤐 As alluded to, circumstances can change, FTMDave made the following point that it had been boasted that no Caggers, over two years, who had sent a PPC the wrong registration snotty letter, had even been taken to court, let alone lost a court hearing .... but now they have. I too used the word "seemed" because it is true, we haven't had all the details. After perusing this forum I believe certain advice changed here after the Beavis case, I could be wrong but that is what I seem to remember reading. Could it be that after winning the above case in question, a claimant could refer back to this case and claim that a defendant had not made use of the appeal process, therefore allowing the claimant to win? Again, in this instance only, I do not know what is to be gained by not making an appeal or concealing the identity of the driver, especially if it is later admitted that the defendant was the driver and was the one to input the incorrect VRN in error. So far no one has educated me as to the reason why. But, of course, when making an appeal, it should be worded carefully so that an error in the appeal process cannot be referred back to. I thought long and hard about whether or not to post here but I wanted to bring up this point for discussion. Yes, I admit I have limited knowledge, but does that mean I should have kept silent? After I posted that I moved away from this forum slightly to find other avenues to increase my knowledge. I bought a law book and am now following certain lawyers on Youtube in the hope of arming myself with enough ammunition to use in my own case. In one video titled “7 Reasons You Will LOSE Your Court Case (and how to avoid them)” by Black Belt Barrister I believe he makes my point by saying the following, and I quote: “If you ignore the complaint in the first instance and it does eventually end up in court then it's going to look bad that you didn't co-operate in the first place. The court is not going to look kindly on you simply ignoring the company and not, let's say, availing yourself of any kind of appeal opportunities, particularly if we are talking about parking charge notices and things like that.” This point makes me think that, it is not such a bizarre judgement in the end. Only in the case of having proof of payment and inputting an incorrect VRN .... could it be worthwhile making a carefully worded appeal in the first instance? .... If the appeal fails, depending on the reason, surely this could only help if it went to court? As always, any feedback gratefully received.
    • To which official body does one make a formal complaint about a LPA fixed charge receiver? Does one make a complaint first to the company employing the appointed individuals?    Or can one complain immediately to an official body, such as nara?    I've tried researching but there doesn't seem a very clear route on how to legally hold them to account for wrongful behaviour.  It seems frustratingly complicated because they are considered to be officers of the court and held in high esteem - and the borrower is deemed liable for their actions.  Yet what does the borrower do when disclosure shows clear evidence of wrong-doing? Does anyone have any pointers please?
    • Steam is still needed in many industries, but much of it is still made with fossil fuels.View the full article
    • Less than 1% of Japan's top companies are led by women despite years of efforts to address the issue.View the full article
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post dated cheque


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i sent two cheques to cover a bill one was dated the 2nd january and the other was post dated the 9th january but i have checked my bank account this morning and both cheques have already been cashed. I always thiought a cheque cant be cashed before the date of issue.

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if it was february, then 2 points. it is illegal to postdate a cheque although a lot of people do and the banks reserve the right to cash a postdated cheque unless of course it was January as blacksheep has stated

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  • 2 weeks later...

Are you sure its illegal to post date a cheque? A pd cheque is an acknowledgment that the payer agrees the debt is due and is therefore good thing to accept in payment, rather than just a promise to issue a cheque later. I issued a pd cheque once and subsequently stopped it as matters changed. In court I lost trying to argue why I stopped the cheque. The why was irrelevant, simply you cannot stop a post dated cheque.

Its WAR

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Are you sure its illegal to post date a cheque? A pd cheque is an acknowledgment that the payer agrees the debt is due and is therefore good thing to accept in payment, rather than just a promise to issue a cheque later. I issued a pd cheque once and subsequently stopped it as matters changed. In court I lost trying to argue why I stopped the cheque. The why was irrelevant, simply you cannot stop a post dated cheque.

 

issuing of post dated cheque is not admission of debt.

 

However in banking terms there is no such thing as post dated since banks do not like customers issuing them. Years ago there were Bills of Exchange which was like issuing a post dated cheque and could not to banked before the due date, must admit haven't come across this lately

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issuing of post dated cheque is not admission of debt.

 

 

I'm not sure the courts would agree with you on that one humbleman....

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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On what basis does he say this? In what way can a cheque show anything but an intention to pay, and hence an admission of debt?

 

BTW, I'm not arguing HM, just debating :) I am curious, as if you are right, it goes against all my experiences in court!

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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On what basis does he say this? In what way can a cheque show anything but an intention to pay, and hence an admission of debt?

 

BTW, I'm not arguing HM, just debating :) I am curious, as if you are right, it goes against all my experiences in court!

 

In the 90s it was quite common that you would issue suppliers a post dated cheque when you exceeded your credit limit, so the supplier would deliver goods the buyer would issue the supplier a P.D. cheque. On one such occassion this happened and the cheque was subsequently stopped, since there was a large rebate given to this supplier by the manufacturer to be paid to the buyer. The buyer knew that there was a large rebate coming but the supplier did not credit the buyers account hoping he can buy a few months before the buyer became aware of this. The buyer found this out and stopped the payment. The supplier takes the buyer to the court and the buyer argues that the supplier did not properly credit his account, the supplier argued that the buyer had been properly credited and since the buyer had issued the supplier a PD cheque this is an admission by the buyer that the monies are owed. The judge pointed out that giving a P.D. cheque is not considered an admission of debt.

 

But dont mistake the above with acquiring with intent to deceive. i.e. if you pay for a product in a shop and then stop a payment, that would be deception.

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Good info HM, thanks. But, did the judge not say WHY it is not considered an admission of debt? And out of interest, is this considered the case with any cheque, or just PD cheques?

7 years in retail customer service

 

Expertise in letting and rental law for 6 years

 

By trade - I'm an IT engineer working in the housing sector.

 

Please note that any posts made by myself are for information only and should not and must not be taken as correct or factual. If in doubt, consult with a solicitor or other person of equal legal standing.

 

Please click the star if I have helped!!

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  • 1 month later...

I do not see why issuing a cheque - postdated or otherwise - would be considered an admission of debt. Paying in cash does not constitute such an admission...

 

 

Halifax (current accounts, credit card, old mortgage, secured loan)

thread here

 

MBNA (three credit cards)

thread here

firstdirect (a current account, two mortgage accounts, old loans, old credit card)

they've sold my current account. thread here.

 

Royal Mail

Claim issued by former employer Royal Mail, thread here.

I counterclaimed and won. They paid in full.

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I was always under the impression that there was (technically)no such thing as a post dated cheque.

 

I seem to recall in the past that the Inland Revenue were/are famous for banking post dated cheques upon receipt.

Cahoot - Rejection of offer sent 14/06/07

 

Barclaycard - S.A.R - (Subject Access Request) sent 22/03/07

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Bear in mind that cases in the County Courts do not set legal precedent, and I've seen some odd decisions made by county court judges in the past! It can't be taken as gospel.

 

I'm no expert on banking matters but I also did not believe that dates in the future prevented a cheque from being cashed.

Please note I'm not insured in this capacity, so if you need to, do get official legal advice.

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I happen to know that MY bank largely ignore the date on the cheque unless it is "unreasonably distant" from the date of presentation. i.e. if I attempted to bank a cheque which was dated 19th January 2024 or 19th January 1966, the bank would probably reject it! However if they decide to present the cheque regardless of the date written on it, then it will be presented and if guaranteed it will be paid upon presentation.

 

If you wish a debt or bill to be paid later, then issue the cheque later.

a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a. a.

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I always thought a cheque cant be cashed before the date of issue as well, but the bank told me that post dated cheques are illegal, I asked the bank when the same thing happened to me a few weeks ago.

 

Then your bank are misinformed. It has never been a criminal offence to put a future date on a cheque, nor will it ever be. It is however an unlawful document which the banks could at their own discretion reject.

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I'm sure the booklet that came from National Girobank when I opened my first cheque account said cheques were valid only from the date on them for a period of six months. They cautioned that postdated or expired cheques would not be honoured and that in the case of postdated, they would charge for bouncing them.

 

There was also some contradictory rubbish about postdating and using a guarantee card - postdating invalidated the guarantee. But the T&Cs of the guarantee card said that cheques bearing the card number may be honoured even if there are "technical irregularities" and one example they gave was the date.

Halifax (current accounts, credit card, old mortgage, secured loan)

thread here

 

MBNA (three credit cards)

thread here

firstdirect (a current account, two mortgage accounts, old loans, old credit card)

they've sold my current account. thread here.

 

Royal Mail

Claim issued by former employer Royal Mail, thread here.

I counterclaimed and won. They paid in full.

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Issuing a post dated is an offence only if it is intended to defraud another otherwise it's ok.

 

However most banks just ignore post dated cheques & honour them upon presentation but if they do & you become overdrawnas a result thereby incurring penalty charges you have an argument for a refund

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  • 3 weeks later...

Something similar just happened to me.

 

Moving house and gave the new landlord a cheque for £1300 that was dated for the 25th of April. He put it through this week and it has taken me way over my overdraft.

 

Called the Abbey as I though they were not supposed to put it through till the date on it – yet they say they don’t recognize post dated cheques.

 

Yet another bank charge coming my way because someone I gave a cheque to didn’t follow my simple instructuions.

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I have had the same problem with pd chqs.

 

I have given them out only to fine thant they have been cashed even though the date was in the future, then i would get charged by my bank for cashing them only to be told there is no longer such thing as a pd chq, this also happened to a friend.

 

So i stopped doing it.

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Guest NATTIE

the bank have a clause which states, that while they do not accept post dated cheques they reserve the right to pay any cheques that are missed. To be blunt cheques missed at the first point of contact ie bank, are rarely checked up to a certain amount and so far none of the amounts mentioned is at that limit.

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The date on a cheque is meant to be the date on which you signed it. It would probably be clearer if the space for the date was beside the signature.

 

Not sure how it's done now, but cheques used to be processed by clerks who only really looked at the figures - these would be typed into a machine as the cheque flashed past, which would then print the amount in magnetis type on the bottom (there is a space next to the account number for this). The words, date and signature would be ignored unless the cheque was queried for some reason. So there's no point in postdating a cheque anyway, nobody reads it!

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I don't think I have ever read such misinformation on any other thread on this forum as exists on this one.

Cheques were initially governed by the Bills of Exchange Act 1882. And bills

of exchange were issued with two dates-the date of issue, and the date

when the bill was to be paid-often several months in advance.

 

Since then, there have been a Cheques Act 1957 and another in 1992, and

part of the 1882 Act has been deregulated partly to accomodate banks to

pay cheques in a central office obviating the need to send their cheques

to individual branches for clearance.

At no time, as far as I can see, has the facility to postdate a cheque ever

been abolished. Indeed certain companies often ask their prospective clients

to deliberately post date their cheques as a guarantee they the cheque will

not be presented before that date should they not be alloctaed they shares the applied for, or the goods sent on approval were returned.

 

I am aware that certain banks do now stipulate that they frown on the use

of customers postdating cheques, but I believe those banks are reneging on

the contract that exists between themselves and their customers when they

take such action.

 

A cheque is an instruction by the drawer of the cheque to pay a specified

amount to a payee on, or after, a certain date which the drawer then signs

to confirm his intentions. Those insructions are supposed to be honoured by

the bank, providing the funds are available.

 

That the banks have not always honoured this procedure is evidenced by the

need for the Cheques Act 1992. Where the drawer had specifically marked

the cheque "account payee only", the bankers were ignoring that instruction

and allowing the cheque to be transferred to other accounts. So the

1992 Act spelt it out for them. Now things

have gone the other way and virtually all chequebooks issued have the

cheques so marked [account payee only]. This makes life so much easier for banks since they do

not have the worry of concerning themselves with endorsements on the back of cheques.

And so it is with postdated cheques. By asking customers not to postdate

cheques, it makes life even easier for the banks. They have one less factor

to concern themselves with when paying cheques. And make no mistake, the

banks are liable when they pay a cheque that should not have been paid.

I am only surprised that they have not tried to prevent customers from

stopping cheques.

 

This is an extract from the British Bankers Association on postdated cheques

Sometimes customers 'post-date' a cheque. This is a date in the future and essentially means that the customer intends that the bank will not pay the cheque earlier than the date inserted on the cheque. If a post-dated cheque is paid in before the date on the cheque the bank may pay it or return it marked ?post-dated'. Most banks do not encourage post-dating cheques. You should be careful to ensure that a post-dated cheque is not presented to a bank before the date on the cheque. Some banks state in their terms and conditions that they will pay a post dated cheque on first presentation if the cheque is otherwise in order.

 

Quite clearly then it is not unlawful to postdate cheques, it's just that banks

are weaselling out of their responsibilty to accede to their customers

instructions.

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The date on a cheque is meant to be the date on which you signed it. It would probably be clearer if the space for the date was beside the signature.

 

Where does it state that the date is the date the cheque was issued? The date is in fact the date before which the cheque should not be paid by order of the drawer.

 

Not sure how it's done now, but cheques used to be processed by clerks who only really looked at the figures - these would be typed into a machine as the cheque flashed past, which would then print the amount in magnetis type on the bottom (there is a space next to the account number for this). The words, date and signature would be ignored unless the cheque was queried for some reason. So there's no point in postdating a cheque anyway, nobody reads it!

 

I think you are confusing two different processes. The magnetic

type is added to the cheque by the bank where the cheque is paid in.

But it is the bank that holds the account on which the cheque is drawn that

is responsible to see that the cheque is in order before it is paid. And they

are supposed to check everything-the date; that there is a payee; the

amount in words and figures agree;that the cheque has been signed by

the drawer [and not been forged] and there is not a "stop" on the cheque.

 

In practice now I understand, much of that has fallen by the wayside, but

the banks do run the risk of being held accountable should things go wrong.

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Lookinforinfo, I'm afraid you are wrong in almost all of your interpretations of the above. The magnetic type is in fact added by the drawer's bank, or at least it was when I had the job of doing it.

 

The 1992 Act is irrelevant, it says nothing about postdating.

 

It may well be that Bills of Exchange had two dates on them, but cheques only have the one. This is the date of issue of the cheque, and it should be the date on which the cheque is issued.

 

You can find nothing to abolish the facility to postdate a cheque because that facility never actually existed.

 

As you say, the British Bankers Association are clear that it is legal to present a postdated cheque and that it is the drawer's responsibility to ensure that this doesn't happen. As you helpfully quote, they say:

 

You should be careful to ensure that a post-dated cheque is not presented to a bank before the date on the cheque. Some banks state in their terms and conditions that they will pay a post dated cheque on first presentation if the cheque is otherwise in order.

 

That seems perfectly clear to me.

 

B-B

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