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    • Thank you for your reply, DX! I was not under the impression that paying it off would remove it from my file. My file is already trashed so it would make very little difference to any credit score. I am not certain if I can claim compensation for a damaged credit score though. Or for them reporting incorrect information for over 10 years? The original debt has been reported since 2013 as an EE debt even though they had sold it in 2014. It appears to be a breach of the Data Protection Act 1998 Section 13 and this all should have come to a head when I paid the £69 in September 2022, or so I thought. The £69 was in addition to the original outstanding balance and not sent to a DCA. Even if I had paid the full balance demanded by the DCA back in 2014 then the £69 would still have been outstanding with EE. If it turns out I have no claim then so be it. Sometimes there's not always a claim if there's blame. The CRA's will not give any reason for not removing it. They simply say it is not their information and refer me to EE. More to the point EE had my updated details since 2022 yet failed to contact me. I have been present on the electoral roll since 2012 so was traceable and I think EE have been negligent in reporting an account as in payment arrangement when in fact it had been sold to a DCA. In my mind what should have happened was the account should have been defaulted before it was closed and sold to the DCA who would then have made a new entry on my credit file with the correct details. However, a further £69 of charges were applied AFTER it was sent to the DCA and it was left open on EE systems. The account was then being reported twice. Once with EE as open with a payment arrangement for the £69 balance which has continued since 2013 and once with the DCA who reported it as defaulted in 2014 and it subsequently dropped off and was written off by the DCA, LOWELL in 2021. I am quite happy for EE to place a closed account on my credit file, marked as satisfied. However, it is clear to me that them reporting an open account with payment arrangement when the balance is £0 and the original debt has been written off is incorrect? Am I wrong?
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Rust returns after 5 months


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Hi everyone,

Can someone advise me please?

In November 2016, I had the rust on my car sorted by a local recommended garage. It was a cash job as it saved me £100 on the quoted £600. Now, only five months later, the rust is back and it looks as bad as it did before the "repair".

 

 

I have just rang the garage, only to be hurryingly told that they don't give any guarantees over their rust repairs. I didn't even get to the point where I was going to tell him that I don't have a receipt - it was obvious that he wasn't interested.

 

 

So then, I know that I have potentially lost out here by going cash-in-hand, but any rights on this matter that I could put forward that might change his mind on this?

 

 

P.

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You have rights under the Consumer Rights Act because it is an implied term that any work which is carried out with you will be carried out with reasonable care and skill.

 

On this basis, you can think about suing the garage in the County Court is a small claim with a fairly high chance of success.

 

The only thing that bothers me here is that if you have paid cash in order for instance to escape VAT, if this came to the knowledge of the judge then I can imagine that he/she would decline to hear the case and also require that a reference is made to HMRC.

 

Of course, the garage would itself be in trouble for doing work on this basis. Maybe your best leverage here is to tell the garage that if they won't deal with it then you will take action and that the cash transaction will be much more serious for them than for you – which is probably correct.

 

If you are lucky they might simply put their hands up.

 

Anyway, the situation is that you don't need a guarantee from them. You are probably protected by statutory rights – but you need to be aware of the complications that you have made for yourself by doing it "off the books".

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Thanks for your reply.

 

 

As I'm also self-employed and VAT registered, your comments concerning the HMRC is something that I was also thinking about. I plan on going to see the garage next week...hopefully he'll see sense.

 

 

Can he deny all knowledge of actually doing the work as there's no paperwork?

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Possibly yes he can. Did you sign any job authorisation when you took the car in?

 

 

However, be warned that it's a generally accepted thing within the industry that rust repairs cannot be guaranteed unless the panel is changed for a new one. Grinding back to new metal won't work in reality.

 

 

Think you're just going to have to accept this one as down to experience. Would be interested to know though what panels, what car and how old it is along with where the rust occurs as this might be a common issue known in the trade so might give you some leverage. VW Passat wing springs to mind!

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It was a very informal for such a well-respected garage.

 

 

The car is a Mazda MX5 Mk2...and they DO rust. The place where these get it is around the rear wheelarch/sill. After the work was done, he showed me photos of how much metal he had removed from the area and welded in new metal. I'm sure he did a good job in that respect, but the rust is back in exactly the same place. My main concern is that the Sill is a import structural part of the car and my good lady is potentially driving around in an unsafe car.

 

 

Rust never gets better without intervention, so it looks like I'll be car-hunting soon or spending another £500 (at a different garage). It's a shame because she loves the car.

 

 

Thanks for the advice - as usual, it's very much appreciated.

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