Hi All,

Need some Advice please from you knowledgeable bunch.

Back in Sept 2007

I defaulted and stopped my payments on an Argos Store Card which i had due to financial issues,

I had the usual debt collection letters for approx 1 year which i ignored

and made no payments on due to not being able to.

The default was registered on my Credit File as Nov 2007 and disappeared off my file in Nov 2013,

by which time the debt was Statue Barred,

During this time no contact was made with any DCA and NO payments were made to the account,

and none have been made since.

To my shock, last month i received a letter from a DCA stating that the amount was still owed (Approx £1200)

and that i should contact them to make payment,

I sent them a letter stating that the debt was statue barred since no payments were made since Sept 2007

and no acknowledgement has been made of the debt.

They have now written back to me stating that the debt is NOT statue barred,

they have confirmed that they have owned the account since 2009

and that in 2010 they claim i made 7 payments of £15,

hence taking away the statue of limitations,

they have provide a spreadsheet showing the payments and dates of payments.

I know for a Fact that i made no payments and have just requested old bank statements from 2010

which prove that i have made no payments equalling these amounts on the dates they have stated.

They have not sent any copies of agreements or letters of assignment.

Not sure now how to reply to them on this as they state legal action will follow

if I don't contact them and arrange payment.

Any advice for me please ??? As trying to put my bad past behind me.

Thanks

should have ignored them.

if a debt is statute barred

then let them issue a speculative claim

and nail them in court for it.

and the DCA is?

Thanks Dx, company called DLC

I have heard of cases where money has been paid into an account to prevent it becoming statute barred

but never as much money nor over several months-one payment is sufficient.

It does beg the question that if the money was paid in by a DCA for example,

why would they wait for so long to contact you-just when the account is due to become barred again by their book keeping method.

As the money was allegedly paid in 2010 it should still show on your credit record

and if it does put them to strict proof that it was you who paid the money.

Their bank will still have to retain the credit transfers from where the payment was made and how (cash or cheque).

In addition, I guess they have not being sending you annual statements of the amount owed?

Thanks Lookin, no haven't received anything and thought it was dead and buried in 2013.

As lookingforinfo has said, put them to the task of providing proof/evidence that it was you who made those payments.